Advertising And Promotion Global Edition by Belch -Test Bank


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Advertising And Promotion Global Edition by Belch -Test Bank

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Chapter 02

The Role of IMC in the Marketing Process


True / False Questions

1. Market opportunities are areas where the company believes that customer needs and opportunities are being satisfied.

True    False


2. A market can rarely be viewed as one large, homogeneous group of customers; rather, it consists of many heterogeneous groups, or segments.

True    False


3. Dominating channels of distribution is one way of creating a competitive advantage.

True    False


4. Marketers often go after the entire market with one product, brand, or service offering to create the maximum impact.

True    False


5. In a typical target marketing process, the stage of segmenting the market is immediately followed by positioning one’s product or service through effective marketing strategies.

True    False


6. Target market identification isolates consumers with similar lifestyles, needs, and the like, and increases the knowledge of their specific requirements.

True    False


7. The more marketers segment the market, the less precise is their understanding of it.

True    False


8. In the geographic segmentation approach, markets are divided into units based on consumers’ occupations and lifestyles.

True    False


9. When a market is segmented based on how aware and informed the consumers are, the variable used to choose a marketing approach is product knowledge.

True    False


10. In the psychographic approach to segmentation, determination of lifestyles is usually based on an analysis of the activities, interests, and opinions (AIOs) of consumers.

True    False


11. Segmenting the market based on consumers’ product or brand usage and the degree of use is an example of behavioristic segmentation.

True    False


12. Differentiated marketing is used when the firm selects one segment and attempts to capture a large share of this market.

True    False


13. The consumer approach positions a product by comparing it and the benefit it offers against those offered by competitors.

True    False


14. Premium brands positioned at the high end of the market usually use the price/quality approach to positioning.

True    False


15. While positioning by product class, marketers only position against brands, and not against other product categories.

True    False


16. Repositioning of a product usually occurs because of declining or stagnant sales.

True    False


17. Strong symbolic features and social and psychological meaning may be more important than functional utility for many products.

True    False


18. Brand equity refers to the tangible assets earned through a product’s functional purpose.

True    False


19. A marketer with an integrated marketing communications (IMC) perspective is likely to link high relative ad expenditures with premium prices, and low relative ad expenditures with low prices.

True    False


20. Trade advertising focuses on sales promotion efforts directed toward the ultimate consumer.

True    False



Multiple Choice Questions

21. According to the marketing and promotions process model, the marketing process begins with the:

A. development of the brand equity.


B. development of a marketing strategy.


C. development of the promotional mix.


D. determination of the promotional budget.


E. establishment of a nano-campaign marketing strategy.


22. According to the marketing and promotions process model, in which of the following stages does the company decide the product or service areas and particular markets where it wants to compete?

A. Development of a marketing strategy and analysis


B. Development of the target marketing process


C. Allocation of advertising budget


D. Development of the marketing planning program


E. Creation of a positioning strategy


23. _____ is a detailed assessment of the current marketing conditions facing the company, its product lines, or its individual brands.

A. Matrix analysis


B. Micro analysis


C. Situation analysis


D. Opportunity analysis


E. Competitive analysis


24. Which of the following is best defined as areas where there are favorable demand trends, customer needs and wants are not being satisfied, and where a company thinks it can compete effectively?

A. Market opportunities


B. Market segmentations


C. Marketing channels


D. Marketing-stubs


E. Market economics


25. A situational analysis:

A. does not include an assessment of a company’s product lines.


B. usually starts with a positioning strategy.


C. does not include an assessment of the conditions facing the company.


D. typically involves creating branding strategies.


E. includes an assessment of its individual brands.


26. During a routine market study conducted by CL Foods, it was noted that Chinese and Indian food products were in high demand in American society. In order to take advantage of such a demand, CL Foods manufactured and sold these food items locally. In this scenario, the company is taking advantage of a _____.

A. market opportunity


B. market aggregation


C. market assimilation


D. marketing buzz


E. market threat


27. FunZone Inc. identified and developed a SmartCard that can be used at fair grounds to make the ticketing process easier. The company found that the existing system was complicated and highly time-consuming. The SmartCard was easy to operate and each swipe would deduct the cost of a ride automatically. According to the given scenario, FunZone has recognized a:

A. market opportunity.


B. marketing buzz.


C. marketing engagement.


D. marketing channel.


E. market threat.


28. There are several medicines that relieve allergy-related symptoms but only Sensitine comes in a quick dissolving form that can be easily swallowed without water. The manufacturer of Sensitine hopes the fact that it dissolves and enters the system quicker than other brands will create a:

A. market aggregation.


B. marketing assimilation.


C. competitive advantage.


D. cross-merchandising strategy.


E. market dis-intermediation.


29. Offering quality products that command a premium price, providing superior customer service, having the lowest production costs and lower prices, or dominating channels of distribution are ways of:

A. achieving competitive advantage.


B. practicing cross-merchandising strategy.


C. creating market space.


D. practicing bait-and-switch marketing.


E. establishing a marketing-stub.


30. _____ is defined as something unique or special a firm possesses or does that gives it an edge over other firms in a similar industry.

A. Competitor indexing


B. Switch marketing


C. Competitive advantage


D. Marketing-stub


E. Bait marketing


31. John & Bauer Inc., manufacturers of health drugs, are the manufacturers of a painkiller called JB Revive. The painkiller is unique as it contains calcium, and it is quite unlike any other pain killer in the market. The addition of calcium led to an increase in sales of the medicine as well. In this scenario, the addition of calcium gives the company a:

A. market engagement.


B. cross-merchandising opportunity.


C. competitive advantage.


D. marketing assimilation.


E. competitive index.


32. The first step in the target marketing process is to:

A. develop positioning strategies.


B. request government approval.


C. determine whether to use a market segmentation strategy or a mass marketing strategy.


D. identify markets with unfulfilled needs.


E. develop new products.


33. The market segmentation process:

A. divides a market into distinct groups that have heterogeneous needs.


B. divides a market into distinct groups that will respond similarly to marketing actions.


C. offers one version of the product to all markets.


D. creates products for several markets that have independent needs.


E. positions products in the minds of prospects and customers.


34. Directing a company’s efforts toward one or more groups of customers who share common needs is known as:

A. cross-merchandising.


B. competitor indexing.


C. mass customization.


D. market segmentation.


E. cross-branding.


35. Dividing the market into units such as nation, states, town, counties, or even neighborhoods is known as:

A. demographic segmentation.


B. psychographic segmentation.


C. quantified aggregation.


D. lifestyle aggregation.


E. geographic segmentation.


36. Which of the following is a geographic variable for segmentation of the market?

A. Family size


B. Occasions


C. Counties


D. Age


E. Gender


37. Which of the following is a geographic segmentation variable?

A. Income


B. Neighborhood


C. Sex


D. Education


E. Involvement


38. Delish Inc., a food manufacturer, introduced an instant soup specially designed for and advertised in the colder regions of Asia and Europe. This is an example of:

A. demographic segmentation.


B. psychographic segmentation.


C. sociocultural segmentation.


D. geographic segmentation.


E. undifferentiated marketing.


39. Brown’s Frozen BBQ Sandwiches are made with goat meat drenched in a sweet onion sauce. These sandwiches would not be popular in Texas, where people prefer beef, or in Miami where a mustard-based sauce is preferred. Which of the following segmentation approaches would be best for the company?

A. Demographic


B. Socioeconomic


C. Personality


D. Geographic


E. Behavioristic


40. Brown’s Foods determined that Southerners preferred milder mustard than those in the Northeast. This led the company to develop a new “Southern Style Mustard.” This strategy best exemplifies:

A. geographic segmentation.


B. lifestyle segmentation.


C. socioeconomic segmentation.


D. demographic segmentation.


E. usage segmentation.


41. Which of the following is a primary variable of demographic segmentation?

A. Lifestyle


B. Personality


C. Occupation


D. Education


E. Social class


42. Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable characteristics is known as:

A. demographic segmentation.


B. psychographic segmentation.


C. socioeconomic segmentation.


D. geographic segmentation.


E. undifferentiated segmentation.


43. Jim’s Inc., a travel agency in Texas, offers trips that are designed specifically for couples. In this scenario, the company is using _____ segmentation.

A. geographic


B. demographic


C. lifestyle


D. behavioristic


E. personality


44. Venus Finance aired a series of ads that targeted people born after 1980, also known as Generation Y. In this scenario, the company is using a _____ segmentation strategy.

A. geographic


B. demographic


C. socioeconomic


D. behavioristic


E. personality


45. Which of the following is a variable of the demographic segmentation strategy?

A. Personality


B. Marital status


C. Values


D. Lifestyle


E. Occupation


46. Enliven, a sports drink manufacturer, has identified its preferred target market as men between the ages of 18 to 22 who are currently in high school or college and active in sports. Which of the following types of segmentation is Enliven using in this scenario?

A. Benefit and demographic


B. Psychographic and geographic


C. Demographic and socioeconomic


D. Geographic and psychographic


E. Socioeconomic and psychographic


47. Dividing the market on the basis of personality and/or lifestyles is referred to as _____.

A. geographic segmentation


B. demographic segmentation


C. psychographic segmentation


D. socio economic segmentation


E. behavioral segmentation


48. _____ divides a market on the basis of lifecycles.

A. Geographic segmentation


B. Psychographic segmentation


C. Benefit segmentation


D. Demographic segmentation


E. Socioeconomic segmentation


49. Merry Inc. is a non-profit organization that employs a large number of underprivileged people. It sells art and handicrafts made by these individuals at reasonable prices. Merry’s target market consists of people who believe in helping others. It uses _____ segmentation.

A. demographic


B. geographic


C. psychographic


D. benefit


E. socio economic


50. With respect to psychographic segmentation of markets, AIO stands for:

A. activities, innovation, and opinions.


B. activities, interests, and opportunities.


C. activities, innovations, and opportunities.


D. activities, interests, and opinions.


E. actions, interests, and opinions.


51. Which of the following is a primary variable used in psychographic segmentation?

A. Income


B. Lifestyles


C. Education


D. Marital status


E. Age


52. Pluto Inc., a car manufacturer, makes high-end, expensive sports cars. The company targets people who live life on the fast lane and are generally considered to have flashy personalities. In this scenario, Pluto is using _____ segmentation.

A. psychographic


B. benefit


C. socioeconomic


D. undifferentiated


E. demographic


53. Which of the following is a primary variable defined in psychographic segmentation?

A. Lifecycles


B. Income


C. Education


D. Life stage


E. Gender


54. _____ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage, loyalties, or buying responses to a product.

A. Benefit


B. Geographic


C. Demographic


D. Behavioristic


E. Psychographic


55. A company that divides its target markets based on their perceived level of loyalty is using:

A. benefit segmentation.


B. geographic segmentation.


C. socioeconomic segmentation.


D. behavioristic segmentation.


E. outlet segmentation.


56. Which of the following types of segmentation is employed when consumers are grouped according to their usage and buying responses to a product or service?

A. Behavioristic


B. Demographic


C. Benefit


D. Socioeconomic


E. Psychographic


57. Degree of usage as a basis of segmentation is best reflected by:

A. the VALS principle.


B. the iceberg principle.


C. the mirror image rule.


D. the rule of equity.


E. the 80-20 rule.


58. _____ segmentation is most closely related to the 80-20 rule, which states that 80 percent of a company’s business comes from 20 percent of its customers.

A. Geographic


B. Behavioristic


C. Demographic


D. Psychographic


E. Benefit


59. The 80-20 rule states that:

A. around 80 percent of the firm’s sales comes from 20 percent of the customers.


B. only 80 percent of a market can be segmented.


C. market segmentation works well only 80 percent of the time, unlike market assimilation that works 20 percent of the time.


D. only about 80 percent of the people remember the firm’s positioning of a product while the remaining 20 percent create their own positioning for a particular product.


E. about 80 percent of corporations do not understand the actual meaning of the term “market segmentation.”


60. Dental Care, a dental hygiene products manufacturer, has come up with three types of toothpastes for different segments—whitening toothpaste for individuals who buy for aesthetic reasons, strawberry flavored toothpaste for those concerned with the taste, and germ-control toothpaste for those looking to protect their teeth all day long. On what basis has it segmented the market?

A. Demographic


B. Geographic


C. Socioeconomic


D. Benefit


E. Sociocultural


61. _____ segmentation is the grouping of customers on the basis of attributes sought in a product.

A. Benefit


B. Geographic


C. Socioeconomic


D. Demographic


E. Lifestyle


62. Momentum, a brand of sports cars, launched an advertising campaign with a tagline that states “Our cars outperform most cars on the road even before you step on the accelerator.” In this scenario, the company is using _____ segmentation.

A. benefit


B. demographic


C. geographic


D. psychographic


E. socioeconomic


63. WristTactical, a watch manufacturer, specializes in manufacturing tactical watches for Navy divers. The company launched an ad campaign that stressed the water resistant and endurance characteristics of its watches. In this scenario, WristTactical is making use of _____ segmentation.

A. benefit


B. demographic


C. geographic


D. behavioristic


E. socioeconomic


64. The fact that some consumers want flavored bottled water and others want it with added minerals provides an opportunity for _____ segmentation.

A. socioeconomic


B. benefit


C. geographic


D. psychographic


E. demographic


65. Which of the following is a primary variable considered in benefit segmentation?

A. Attributes sought


B. Income


C. Lifestyle


D. Birth era


E. Marital status


66. According to the market coverage alternatives, _____ involves ignoring segment differences and offering just one product or service for the entire market.

A. bait-and-Switch marketing


B. concentrated marketing


C. micro-marketing


D. neuromarketing


E. undifferentiated marketing


67. Frosty Inc., a beverage manufacturer, only had one product in its line and was targeting all types of customers. With respect to the market coverage alternatives, which of the following would best suit the company?

A. Concentrated marketing


B. Undifferentiated marketing


C. Bait-and-switch marketing


D. Niche marketing


E. Psychographic marketing


68. Which of the following is true of undifferentiated marketing?

A. It involves selecting one segment and attempting to capture a large market share.


B. It involves offering just one product or service to the entire market.


C. It involves creating a niche for a special product line.


D. It involves customizing products for various target segments.


E. It involves developing and offering a product for a specific market segment.

Chapter 04

Perspectives on Consumer Behavior


True / False Questions

1. In order to be successful, marketers need to know the specific needs customers are attempting to satisfy and how they translate into purchase criteria.

True    False


2. Although problem recognition is caused by a difference between the consumer’s ideal state and actual state, the problem does not always imply a negative state.

True    False


3. When the consumer is in the stage of information search in the decision-making process, the relevant internal psychological process is motivation.

True    False


4. When a consumer’s internal psychological process is attitude formation, she is likely to be in the stage of purchase decision in the decision-making process.

True    False


5. Some products or services sought by consumers are not essential but are nonetheless desired.

True    False


6. Those who relate psychoanalytic theory to consumer behavior believe that consumers know why they want the products they wish to buy.

True    False


7. In-depth interviews involve a structured questionnaire that includes numerous yes-or-no questions.

True    False


8. Projective techniques are often the only way to get around stereotypical or socially desirable responses.

True    False


9. An individual’s perceptual processes usually focus on elements of the environment that are relevant to his or her needs and tune out irrelevant stimuli.

True    False


10. The stage of perceptual process in the consumer decision-making process is generalized and is primarily determined by external factors.

True    False


11. When a consumer interprets information in a manner that supports her own position, she is said to be engaging in selective retention.

True    False


12. The exact size of the evoked set varies from one consumer to another and depends on factors such as the importance of the purchase.

True    False


13. Multiattribute models help marketers understand and diagnose the underlying basis of consumers’ attitudes.

True    False


14. According to classical conditioning theory, there is no pre-existing relationship between an unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response.

True    False


15. Reinforcement occurs even when an ad encourages consumers to use a particular product or brand to avoid unpleasant consequences.

True    False


16. Learning occurs more slowly but lasts longer when a partial or intermittent reinforcement schedule is used and only some of the individual’s responses are rewarded.

True    False


17. The cognitive learning theory has been criticized for assuming a mechanistic view of the consumer that puts too much emphasis on external stimulus factors.

True    False


18. Those who belong to the Greatest Generation, influenced by the Great Depression, are infrequent shoppers.

True    False


19. The more advertisers assess situational influences, the more likely they are to succeed in communicating with their target audiences.

True    False


20. While psychologists study consumer responses to advertising and other forms of communication in controlled settings, sociologists and anthropologists study behavior in context.

True    False



Multiple Choice Questions

21. _____ can be defined as the process and activities people engage in when searching for, selecting, purchasing, using, evaluating, and disposing of products and services so as to satisfy their needs and desires.

A. Consumer socialization


B. Consumer culture


C. Consumer behavior


D. Consumer retention


E. Consumer assimilation


22. Robert, an automobile engineer, detects a strange noise emanating from the engine of his car. As he is an expert mechanic, he diagnosed that the car required a new fan belt. Which of the following stages of the consumer decision-making process is represented in this scenario?

A. External search


B. Post purchase evaluation


C. Problem recognition


D. Purchase decision


E. Alternative evaluation


23. Which of the following is the first stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Problem recognition


B. Internal search


C. External search


D. Selective exposure


E. Selective retention


24. Which of the following is the most relevant internal psychological process associated with the problem recognition stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Employment status


B. Motivation


C. Assimilation


D. Dissociation


E. Internalization


25. Which of the following is the most relevant internal psychological process associated with the alternative evaluation stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Motivation


B. Attitude formation


C. Assimilation


D. Integration


E. Differentiation


26. Which of the following is the most relevant internal psychological process associated with the purchase decision stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Externalization


B. Perception


C. Culturalization


D. Integration


E. Learning


27. Which of the following is the most relevant internal psychological process associated with the post purchase evaluation stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Motivation


B. Perception


C. Assimilation


D. Learning


E. Disintegration


28. Which of the following is the most relevant internal psychological process associated with the information search stage of the consumer decision-making process?

A. Differentiation


B. Perception


C. Valuation


D. Amalgamation


E. Disassociation


29. Which of the following statements describe a situation in which marketer-induced problem recognition was used?

A. Shopaholic, a clothing and accessories brand, sends newsletters to all its customers at the end of each summer, stating that their existing wardrobe might be out of style.


B. Ken purchases a cable to connect the DVD player to his TV after purchasing the DVD player.


C. Casey purchased Hair Care shampoo but switched to Rejuvenate shampoo when he found that the shampoo contained extensive chemicals.


D. Upgraded, an electronics store, recently sold goods at discounted prices to people who registered themselves on the company’s website.


E. Patrick hurt his toe while jogging and realized that his sports shoes were torn. He went to the store to purchase a new pair of shoes.


30. Marketers encourage _____ by introducing new brands into markets that are already saturated and by using advertising and sales promotion techniques such as free samples, introductory price offers, and coupons.

A. brand switching


B. brand extension


C. brand dilution


D. brand loyalty


E. brand retention


31. Which of the following consumer behaviors leads them to seek different brands and try out various options?

A. Out of mind syndrome


B. Consumer assimilation


C. Consumer socialization


D. Novelty-seeking behavior


E. Consumer acculturation


32. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the most basic level of needs is:

A. physiological needs.


B. esteem needs.


C. self-actualization needs.


D. social needs.


E. safety needs.


33. Jack, a student, has applied for a job in one of the top private banks in the U.S. Jack feels securing a job with a private bank would fulfill his desire for steady employment. With respect to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, by securing a career in private banking, Jack is most likely to fulfill his _____ needs.

A. physiological


B. esteem


C. social


D. safety


E. self-actualization


34. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, the highest level of needs is _____ need.

A. physiological


B. safety


C. self-actualization


D. esteem


E. social


35. Lower-level needs such as hunger and thirst are important to marketers because these needs:

A. are the hardest to satisfy.


B. are an ongoing source of motivation for most consumer purchase behavior.


C. require marketers to invest heavily on promotional activities.


D. offer marketers a basis for differentiating their products.


E. are the source for most market development and assimilation strategies.


36. Robert, the CEO of a software company in Houston, has fulfilled his career goals. Therefore, he decides to retire and help eliminate societal problems. In order to achieve this, he starts a charitable organization that helps in educating underprivileged children. With respect to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, Robert is looking to fulfill his _____ need.

A. physiological


B. social


C. self-actualization


D. esteem


E. safety


37. The desire to have satisfying relationships with others and feel a sense of love, affection, belonging, and acceptance is a reflection of _____ need.

A. physiological


B. social


C. self-actualization


D. esteem


E. safety


38. _____ theory is an approach that deals with the structure and development of personality and focuses on the underlying motivations for human behavior.

A. Maslow’s hierarchy


B. Psychoanalytic


C. Lamarckian


D. World-systems


E. Structuration


39. Psychoanalytic theory was pioneered by _____.

A. Abraham Maslow


B. Sigmund Freud


C. Ivan Pavlov


D. David McClelland


E. Victor Vroom


40. With respect to motivation research, which of the following is a technique in which a small number of people with similar backgrounds and/or interests are brought together to discuss a particular product, idea, or issue?

A. In-depth interview


B. Delphi technique


C. Focus groups


D. Nominal group technique


E. Association tests


41. With respect to motivation research, which of the following is a face-to-face situation in which an interviewer asks a consumer to talk freely in an unstructured interview using specific questions designed to obtain insights into his or her motives, ideas, or opinions?

A. Focus group interview


B. Stress interview


C. Projective interview


D. Coolhunting


E. In-depth interview


42. James, an interviewer, instructs Lily to respond to his questions with the first thing that comes to her mind. James provides Lily with several stimuli such as words, pictures, and ads. With respect to motivation research, James is using a(n):

A. predictive test.


B. in-depth interview.


C. association test.


D. focus group.


E. projective technique.


43. In the context of motivation research, _____ are efforts designed to gain insights into consumers’ values, motives, attitudes, or needs that are difficult to express or identify by having them project these internal states upon some external object.

A. projective techniques


B. focus interviews


C. assimilation techniques


D. association tests


E. subliminal tests


44. Critics of psychoanalytic theory believe any results from motivation research are unusable because:

A. the results are too predictable.


B. the theory is too sensitive to external environmental stimuli.


C. the research relies heavily on latter individual development.


D. the theory is too vague.


E. the research lacks flexibility.


45. Which of the following is true of the psychoanalytic theory?

A. It is generally considered to have ignored the early development of an individual.


B. It has been criticized for being unresponsive to the external environment.


C. It has proven to be extremely useful as it is structured and easy to administer.


D. It has been validated experimentally.


E. It places less emphasis on the unconscious.


46. _____ is the stage of the consumer decision-making process whereby the individual scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives.

A. Problem recognition


B. Internal information search


C. External information search


D. Alternative evaluation


E. Post purchase evaluation


47. With respect to the consumer decision-making process, the stage that occurs immediately after the problem recognition stage is _____.

A. elaborative rehearsal


B. purchase decision


C. post purchase evaluation


D. information search


E. goal-directed selection


48. Before purchasing a car, John sought advice from his friends and researched for auto reviews on the Internet. He also visited car dealers and requested for a test-drive. In which of the following stages of the consumer decision-making process is John engaged?

A. Internal information search


B. External information search


C. Post purchase evaluation


D. Problem recognition


E. Evoked set manipulation


49. Which of the following is true of perception?

A. Perception is an external process.


B. Perception involves only one process—sensation.


C. Perception is an individual process.


D. Perception is independent of internal psychological factors.


E. The perceptual process is unaffected by the characteristics of a stimulus like its size and color.


50. Which of the following best defines perception?

A. It is an associative learning process which helps in associating a product or service with a favorable emotional state.


B. It is the process of presenting a new production process or product into the market and promoting the same to prospective customers.


C. It is the process by which an individual receives, selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a meaningful picture of the world.


D. It is an intense emotional response of a consumer when he realizes that a repressed conflict is about to emerge into consciousness.


E. It is a situation that arises when a consumer’s prior product knowledge and buying behavior gets distorted and leads to illegal buying situations.


51. Which of the following perception processes is the immediate, direct response to the taste, smell, touch, and hearing of stimuli?

A. Selection


B. Sensation


C. Assimilation


D. Disintegration


E. Interpretation


52. Various brands of perfume use scented strips in their ads to influence _____ and to increase the probability that the ad will be perceived.

A. the consumer’s level of sensory input


B. consumer personality


C. the internal information search


D. the consumer’s cognitive dissonance


E. echoic memory


53. Which of the following is the first step in the selective perception process?

A. Selective attention


B. Selective comprehension


C. Selective integration


D. Selective exposure


E. Selective retention


54. While watching TV, James notices a series of truck ads as he wished to buy a new truck. However, he failed to notice several other ads including those promoting cosmetics, snack foods, and sodas. In this scenario, James is exhibiting _____.

A. selective attention


B. selective retention


C. selective exposure


D. selective assimilation


E. selective comprehension


55. While watching a basketball game on television, Ryan leaves the room during commercial breaks and returns only when the live broadcast returns. If he deliberately avoids viewing commercials, Ryan is likely exhibiting _____.

A. selective attention


B. selective exposure


C. selective comprehension


D. selective retention


E. selective recall


56. The step of the perception process where consumers interpret information based on their own attitudes, beliefs, motives, and experiences is known as:

A. selective attention.


B. selective exposure.


C. selective comprehension.


D. selective retention.


E. selective conditioning.


57. Through the use of mnemonics, advertisers hope consumers will not engage in _____ when they see the advertisements.

A. selective rehearsal


B. selective bias


C. selective comprehension


D. selective retention


E. selective attention


58. Symbols, rhymes, associations, and images that assist in the learning and memory processes are known as:

A. drives.


B. cues.


C. mnemonics.


D. trigger points.


E. memes.


59. Ads that use telephone numbers that contain the company name are hoping to enhance:

A. selective sublimation.


B. selective bias.


C. selective determination.


D. selective retention.


E. selective understanding.


60. _____ is the ability to perceive a stimulus that is below the level of conscious awareness.

A. Selective conditioning perception


B. Observer bias


C. Lightness constancy


D. Subliminal perception


E. Stimuli interception


61. The various brands identified as purchase options to be considered during the alternative evaluation process are known as the consumer’s:

A. perceptive list.


B. attribution list.


C. neutral list.


D. evoked set.


E. sublimation set.


62. Todd buys a fruit-based drink every afternoon. He either buys a Relish apple juice or an orange drink made by Joy Fruit Juices. He will not consider any other brand or type of soft drink because the two drinks make up his:

A. latent set.


B. brand attribution list.


C. natural selection list.


D. evoked set.


E. subliminal choices.


63. During which stage of the consumer decision-making process are evoked sets and evaluative criteria relevant?

A. Problem recognition


B. Information search


C. Post purchase evaluation


D. Alternative evaluation


E. Purchase decision


64. _____ are the dimensions or attributes of a product that are used to compare different alternatives.

A. Evaluative criteria


B. Salient beliefs


C. Dissonance motives


D. Attribute bundles


E. Reinforcement criteria


65. During which stage of the consumer decision-making process are both functional and psychosocial consequences important considerations?

A. Problem recognition


B. Information search


C. Post purchase evaluation


D. Alternative evaluation


E. Observer bias


66. Which of the following is considered to be a subjective evaluative criterion while purchasing an automobile?

A. Price


B. Warranty


C. Fuel Economy


D. Styling


E. Insurance cost


67. Which of the following is true of a psychosocial consequence?

A. They are concrete outcomes of products.


B. They are intangible in nature.


C. They are directly experienced by consumers.


D. They lack subjectivity.


E. They are highly impersonal.



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