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Essentials of Athletic Injury Management 11Th Edition By William Prentice – Test Bank
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Chapter 2 Organizing and Administering an Athletic Health Care Program
1) Which of the following is considered a satisfactory size for an athletic health care facility?
- A) 900 to 950 square feet
- B) 1,000 to 2,000 square feet
- C) 1,400 to 1,500 square feet
- D) 1,700 to 1,800 square feet
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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2) OSHA stands for ________.
- A) Occupational Safety and Housing Administration
- B) Organization for Safety and Health Administration
- C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
- D) Organization for Standards on Health Administration
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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3) Which of the following statements is true about a preparticipation health examination?
- A) The examination fails to reveal conditions that could warrant disqualification from certain sports.
- B) The most thorough and sport-specific type of preparticipation examination is the station examination.
- C) An advantage of preparticipation examination by a personal physician is that it is directed to detection of factors that predispose an athlete to a sports injury.
- D) When a preparticipation examination is done using a station examination system, it yields an in-depth history and an ideal physician-patient relationship.
Answer: B
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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4) The primary purpose of a preparticipation health examination is to:
- A) identify whether an athlete is at risk before he or she participates in a sport.
- B) determine body fat percentages for coaches in a specific sport.
- C) reveal qualifying conditions.
- D) satisfy insurance and liability issues.
Answer: A
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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5) Which of the following is the most suitable method of performing a maturity assessment?
- A) Skeletal assessment
- B) Dental assessment
- C) Indication of secondary sexual characteristics
- D) Muscular assessment
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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6) Which of the following protects the privacy of student educational records?
- A) NCAA
- B) FERPA
- C) OSHA
- D) HIPAA
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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7) The purpose of obtaining a personal information card on each athlete is to:
- A) maintain his or her injury evaluation records.
- B) record his or her treatments.
- C) obtain the contact details of his or her family and insurance company.
- D) obtain his or her baseline information.
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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8) Which of the following regulates how any member of a sports medicine team who has health information about an athlete can share that information with others?
- A) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration
- B) The American Academy of Sports Medicine
- C) The Americans with Disabilities Act
- D) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Answer: D
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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9) Which of the following areas needs to be included in the design of an athletic health care facility?
- A) A private evaluation room
- B) A wet area
- C) An area for taping and bandaging
- D) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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10) Which of the following statements is true about the rules and policies of athletic health care facilities?
- A) Athletes should consume their daily helping of healthy foods within the facility.
- B) Athletes should wear cleated shoes at all times within the facility.
- C) Athletes should shower before receiving treatment in the facility.
- D) Athletes should store game equipment in specific storage units built inside the facility.
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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11) When performing a preparticipation exam using stations, how many people are necessary to adequately complete this process?
- A) A team of five people to examine 30 or more athletes
- B) A team of nine people to examine 40 or more athletes
- C) A team of nine people to examine 30 or more athletes
- D) A team of six people to examine 60 or more athletes
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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12) Which of the following types of documentation should be used as a sign-in record for athletes who receive any service in an athletic health care facility?
- A) Injury reports
- B) Treatment logs
- C) Personal information cards
- D) Injury record forms
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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13) During an orthopedic screening examination, which of the following activities is used to determine the deltoid strength of an athlete?
- A) Tightening and relaxing the quadriceps
- B) Performing a lunge with each leg
- C) Flexing the elbows at 90 degrees
- D) Abducting the shoulders at 90 degrees
Answer: D
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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14) During an orthopedic screening examination, shrugging the shoulders is used to determine the ________.
- A) trapezius strength
- B) deltoid strength
- C) shoulders’ range of motion
- D) cervical spine’s range of motion
Answer: A
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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15) Every athletic health care program must develop policies and procedures that carefully delineate the daily routine of the program.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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16) A preparticipation health examination includes a physical exam, a maturity assessment, and an orthopedic screening.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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17) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an athlete who has lost one of two paired organs such as eyes or kidneys can be legally disqualified from playing a collision or contact sport.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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18) If an athlete wishes to have his or her medical records released to professionals who are involved in providing health care to the athlete, then the athlete, the parent, or the guardian must mandatorily sign a waiver that specifies which information is to be released.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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19) It is important to establish definite rules to maintain cleanliness and sanitation in athletic health care facilities.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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20) An annual report serves to analyze the number of supplies used and to establish an order for the following year.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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21) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, a physician cannot legally disqualify athletes from competing because of an existing medical problem.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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22) The medical history should be completed after the physical examination and orthopedic screening during preparticipation health exams.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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23) Fixed equipment necessarily means that it cannot be moved from an athletic health care facility, such as equipment that is part of an emergency or field kit.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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24) Describe the different areas that must be included in an athletic health care facility and draw a layout of those areas.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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25) Describe the rules and policies that should be established in an athletic health care facility.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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26) Describe the considerations used when developing a budget and ordering supplies.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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27) Describe the components of a preparticipation health examination.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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Athletic Training, 11e (Prentice)
Chapter 4 Preventing Injuries Through Fitness Training
1) Which of the following is defined as an approach to conditioning that attempts to bring about peak performance, while reducing injuries and overtraining in athletes, by developing a training and conditioning program to be followed throughout the various seasons?
- A) Cross training
- B) Periodization
- C) Constancy
- D) Specificity
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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2) Which of the following describes the season when conditioning is dedicated to unstructured, recreational activities?
- A) In-season
- B) Preseason
- C) Off-season
- D) Postseason
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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3) A soccer player running ten 120-yard sprints in under 20 seconds each, with a 1-minute walking recovery period between each sprint is an example of ________.
- A) continuous training
- B) fartlek training
- C) interval training
- D) conditioning
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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4) Which of the following statements is true of ballistic stretching?
- A) It is the most effective and widely used technique of stretching in injury rehabilitation of sore or strained muscles.
- B) It involves passively stretching a muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch, or its endpoint where there is resistance to stretch, and holding it there for an extended time.
- C) It involves a bouncing movement in which repetitive contractions of the agonist muscle are used to produce quick stretches of the antagonist muscle.
- D) It is highly effective in improving range of motion because the forces that are generated during stretching are unlikely to lead to any sort of muscle injury.
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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5) Hops, bounds, and depth jumps are forms of ________.
- A) isokinetic exercises
- B) plyometric exercises
- C) isotonic exercises
- D) circuit training
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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6) Which of the following involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle is changing while the contraction is performed at a constant velocity?
- A) Isometric exercises
- B) Isotonic exercises
- C) Isokinetic exercises
- D) Isodynamic exercises
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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7) Which of the following involves passively stretching a muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch, or its endpoint where there is resistance to stretch, and holding it there for an extended time?
- A) Static stretching
- B) Active stretching
- C) Dynamic stretching
- D) PNF stretching
Answer: A
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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8) Which of the following statements is true of isokinetic exercises?
- A) In isokinetic exercises, the muscle is shortened and lengthened through a complete range of motion.
- B) In isokinetic exercises, resistance is given at a fixed velocity of movement with accommodating resistance.
- C) Isokinetic exercises have been widely used as a training and conditioning technique and have also gained popularity as a rehabilitation tool.
- D) The key to isokinetic exercise is the resistance rather than the speed at which resistance can be moved.
Answer: B
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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9) A dynamic warm-up that is usually used to prepare for physical activity can be done in ________.
- A) not more than 10 minutes
- B) as little as 5 minutes or as long as 20 minutes
- C) not less than 15 minutes
- D) as little as 20 minutes or as long as 30 minutes
Answer: B
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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10) Which of the following involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle remains constant while tension develops toward a maximum force against an immovable resistance?
- A) A progressive resistance exercise
- B) An isotonic exercise
- C) An isometric exercise
- D) A plyometric exercise
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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11) Which of the following terms is defined as the ability to generate force rapidly?
- A) Muscular endurance
- B) Power
- C) Muscular strength
- D) Torque
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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12) Which of the following statements is true of isometric exercises?
- A) They are unlikely to produce a spike in blood pressure.
- B) They are commonly used in injury rehabilitation or reconditioning.
- C) They are unlikely to result in the Valsalva effect.
- D) They are the most commonly used technique for improving muscular strength.
Answer: B
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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13) Which of the following is a technique of exercise that involves a rapid eccentric stretch of a muscle, followed immediately by a rapid concentric contraction of that muscle for the purpose of producing a forceful explosive movement over a short period?
- A) Free exercises
- B) Calisthenics
- C) Plyometric exercises
- D) Isotonic exercises
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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14) Which of the following stretching techniques is generally used for increasing flexibility?
- A) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
- B) Static stretching
- C) Dynamic stretching
- D) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: A
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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15) Which of the following exercises strengthens muscles through a contraction that overcomes some fixed resistance produced by equipment such as dumbbells, barbells, various weight machines, or exercise tubing and uses isotonic contractions in which force is generated while the muscle is changing in length?
- A) Isometric exercises
- B) Progressive resistance exercises
- C) Plyometric exercises
- D) Circuit training exercises
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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16) When a sprinter runs a 50-yard dash, which structure within the muscle is primarily being used?
- A) Muscle spindles
- B) Golgi tendon organs
- C) Fast-twitch fibers
- D) Slow-twitch fibers
Answer: C
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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17) What is the primary reason for the difference in strength between males and females?
- A) Females have increased testosterone levels, which decreases their ability to develop muscle bulk.
- B) Females have smaller muscle fibers than males do.
- C) Females are incapable of building significant muscular strength.
- D) Females have a higher percentage of body fat, which decreases the strength/body weight ratio.
Answer: D
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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18) Which of the following uses a series of exercise stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, bodyweight training, and brief aerobic exercises?
- A) Circuit training
- B) Functional strength training
- C) Progressive resistance exercise training
- D) Isokinetic training
Answer: A
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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19) If the intensity of an activity is low enough that the cardiovascular system can supply enough oxygen to continue the activity for long periods, the activity is an ________.
- A) aerobic activity
- B) anaerobic activity
- C) isotonic activity
- D) isometric activity
Answer: A
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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20) Which of the following training techniques consists of alternating periods of relatively intense work and active recovery?
- A) Cardiovascular training
- B) Fartlek training
- C) Interval training
- D) Aerobic training
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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21) A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of a(n) ________.
- A) isometric exercise
- B) isotonic exercise
- C) isokinetic exercise
- D) proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique
Answer: B
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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22) Which of the following is true of bodyweight training?
- A) It uses the resistance produced by equipment such as weight machines.
- B) It uses a combination of isometric and isokinetic exercises organized into a series of stations.
- C) It uses a rapid eccentric stretch of the muscle to facilitate an explosive concentric contraction.
- D) It uses the force of gravity as resistance.
Answer: D
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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23) The SAID principle states that when the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt to overcome whatever demands are placed on it and, in doing so, minimize the potential for injury.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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24) Open-kinetic chain exercises consist of those exercises in which the foot or hand is in contact with the ground or some other surface.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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25) Currently, muscles are classified into two basic types: slow-twitch powerful fibers and fast-twitch endurance fibers.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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26) Stretching does not necessarily improve performance, nor does it help to prevent injury.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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27) Muscular strength is proportional to the size of a muscle as determined by the cross-sectional diameter of the muscle fibers.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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28) A trigger point is an area of tenderness in a tight band of muscle, and painful or active trigger points most often develop because of some mechanical stress to the muscle.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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29) Muscular endurance is the ability to perform repetitive muscular contractions against some resistance for an extended time, and as muscular strength increases, there tends to be a corresponding increase in endurance.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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30) It is possible to generate greater amounts of force against resistance with an eccentric contraction than with a concentric contraction.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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31) During the strength phase of the preparatory period, training is at a low intensity with a high volume of repetitions.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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32) Hold-relax is an example of a static stretching technique.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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33) Continuous training has four considerations: the type, the frequency, the duration, and the intensity of physical activities.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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34) Overtraining can have a negative effect on the development of muscular strength; engaging in proper and efficient resistance training, eating a proper diet, and getting appropriate rest can all minimize the potential negative effects of overtraining.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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35) Dynamic stretching is unlikely to cause muscular soreness and is commonly used in injury rehabilitation of sore or strained muscles.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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36) The muscle being stretched in response to contraction of the agonist muscle is called the antagonist muscle.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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37) When lifting a weight in the hand, the biceps muscle in the upper arm is shortening as it contracts, which is an eccentric contraction.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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38) Push-ups and sit-ups are examples of bodyweight strengthening exercises.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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39) Passive range of motion requires muscle contraction.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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40) When performing a knee extension exercise, the hamstring group acts as the agonist muscle.
Answer: FALSE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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41) In training and conditioning, the use of closed-chain strengthening techniques is a widely used technique because these exercises tend to be more functional, as most sports activities are weight-bearing.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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42) Cardiorespiratory endurance refers to the body’s ability to transport and use oxygen efficiently and is essential to minimize fatigue, which can lead to injury.
Answer: TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
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43) Describe the principles behind progressive resistance exercises.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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44) Describe the principles of conditioning.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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45) Develop a proper warm-up and cool-down for a track runner to run a 880-yards race.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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46) Describe the various types of PNF stretching techniques.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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47) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of isometric, isotonic, isokinetic, and plyometric exercises.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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48) Please discuss the variables that determine muscular strength.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
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