Foundations Of Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Lauritsen Christensen – Test Bank

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Foundations Of Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Lauritsen Christensen – Test Bank

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Christensen: Foundations of Nursing, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 02: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. When a nurse becomes involved in a legal action, the first step to occur is that a document is filed in an appropriate court. This document is called a(n):

a.	deposition.
b.	appeal.
c.	complaint.
d.	answer.

 

 

 

2. Assuming responsibility for a patient’s care forms a legally binding situation described as:

a.	nurse-patient relationship.
b.	accountability.
c.	advocacy.
d.	standard of care.

 

 

 

3. Universal guidelines that define appropriate measures for all nursing interventions that should be observed during the performance of those interventions are known as:

a.	scope of practice.
b.	advocacy.
c.	standard of care.
d.	prudent practice.

 

 

 

4. The laws that formally define and limit the scope of nursing practice in that state are the:

a.	standards of care.
b.	regulation of practice.
c.	American Nurses’ Association Code.
d.	nurse practice act.

 

 

 

5. A nurse who failed to irrigate a feeding tube as ordered resulting in harm to the patient could be found guilty of:

a.	malpractice.
b.	harm to the patient.
c.	negligence.
d.	failure to follow the Nurse Practice Act.

 

 

 

6. Patients have expectations regarding the health care services they receive. To protect these expectations, which has become law?

a.	American Hospital Association’s Patient’s Bill of Rights
b.	Self-Determination Act
c.	American Hospital Association’s Standards of Care
d.	JCAHO rights and responsibilities of patients

 

 

7. The nurse is preparing the patient for a thoracentesis. What must be completed before the procedure may be performed?

a.	Physical assessment
b.	Interview
c.	Informed consent
d.	Surgical checklist

 

 

 

8. By protecting the information in a patient’s record, the nurse fulfills the ethical responsibility of:

a.	privacy.
b.	disclosure.
c.	confidentiality.
d.	absolute secrecy.

 

 

 

9. An older adult is admitted to the hospital with numerous bodily bruises, and the nurse suspects elder abuse. The best nursing action is to:

a.	cover the bruises with bandages.
b.	take photographs of the bruises.
c.	ask the patient if anyone has hit her.
d.	report the bruises to the charge nurse.

 

 

 

 

10. The nurse concludes that the best way to avoid a lawsuit is to:

a.	carry malpractice insurance.
b.	spend time with the patient.
c.	provide compassionate, competent care.
d.	answer all call lights quickly.

 

 

 

 

11. When seeking advice involving the patient’s right to refuse medication, the nurse should most appropriately consult:

a.	a minister or priest.
b.	the hospital ethics committee.
c.	the nursing supervisor.
d.	a more experienced nurse.

 

 

 

12. Although the nurse may disagree with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, legally he or she:

a.	may question the doctor.
b.	may seek advice from the family.
c.	may discuss it with the patient.
d.	must follow the order.

 

 

 

13. The nurse has strong moral convictions that abortions are wrong. When assigned to assist with an abortion, the nurse has the right to:

a.	ask for another assignment.
b.	leave work.
c.	transfer to another floor.
d.	protest to the supervisor.

 

 

 

14. The new LPN/LVN is concerned regarding what should or should not be done for patients. Select the resource that will best provide this information.

a.	Nurse Practice Act
b.	Standards of care
c.	Scope of nursing practice
d.	Professional organizations

 

 

 

 

15. The nurse who diligently works for the protection of patients’ interests is functioning in the role of:

a.	caregiver.
b.	health care administrator.
c.	advocate.
d.	health care evaluator.

 

 

 

16. When asked to perform a procedure that the nurse has never done before, what should the nurse do to legally protect himself or herself?

a.	Go ahead and do it.
b.	Refuse to perform it, citing lack of knowledge.
c.	Discuss it with the charge nurse, asking for direction.
d.	Ask another nurse who has performed the procedure.

 

 

 

17. The nurse is assisting a patient to clarify values by encouraging the expression of feelings and thoughts related to the situation. The nurse recognizes it is necessary to:

a.	compare her values with those of the patient.
b.	make a judgment.
c.	withhold an opinion.
d.	give advice.

 

 

 

18. When confronted with an ethical decision, the nurse must observe the first fundamental principle of:

a.	autonomy.
b.	beneficence.
c.	respect for people.
d.	nonmaleficence.

 

 

 

19. Since a nurse’s first duty is to the patient’s health, safety, and well-being, it is necessary to report:

a.	unethical behavior of other staff members.
b.	a worker who arrives late.
c.	favoritism shown by nursing administration.
d.	arguments among the staff.

 

 

 

 

20. A nurse considering purchasing malpractice insurance should be aware that malpractice insurance provided by the hospital:

a.	only offers protection while on duty.
b.	is limited in the amount of coverage.
c.	is difficult to renew.
d.	can be terminated at any time.

 

 

 

21. Which is a nursing care error that violates the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

a.	Administering a stronger dose of drug than was ordered
b.	Refusing to give a patient’s daughter information over the phone
c.	Informing the patient’s medical power of attorney of a medication change
d.	Leaving a copy of the patient’s history and physical in the photocopier

 

 

22. A nurse could be cited for malpractice in the event of:

a.	refusing to give 60 mg of morphine as ordered.
b.	giving prochlorperazine (Compazine) to a patient allergic to phenothiazines.
c.	dragging an injured motorist off the highway and causing further injury.
d.	informing a visitor about a patient’s condition.

 

 

/A

 

23. A lumbar puncture was performed on a patient without a signed informed consent form. This may be a situation in which a patient could sue for:

a.	punitive damages.
b.	civil battery.
c.	assault.
d.	nothing; no violation has occurred.

 

 

 

24. A physician instructs the nurse to bladder train a patient. The nurse clamps the patient’s indwelling urinary catheter but forgets to unclamp it. The patient develops a urinary tract infection. The nurse’s actions are an example of:

a.	malpractice.
b.	battery.
c.	assault.
d.	neglect of duty.

 

 

 

25. What is true about nurse practice acts?

a.	They informally define the scope of nursing practice.
b.	They provide for unlimited scope of nursing practice.
c.	Only some states have adopted a nurse practice act.
d.	The nurse must know the nurse practice act within his or her state.

 

 

 

26. How can the medical record be used in litigation? (Select all that apply.)

a.	Public record
b.	Proof of adherence to standards
c.	Evidence of omission of care
d.	Documentation of time lapses
e.	Evidence by only the plaintiff

 

 

 

 

27. During a lunch break, an emergency department (ED) nurse truthfully tells another nurse about the condition of a patient who came to the ED last night. What is the ED nurse guilty of? (Select all that apply.)

a.	HIPAA violation
b.	Slander
c.	Libel
d.	Invasion of privacy
e.	Defamation

 

 

28. A nurse failed to monitor a patient’s respiratory status after medicating the patient with a narcotic analgesic. The patient’s respiratory status worsened, requiring intubation. The patient’s family claimed the nurse committed malpractice. For the nurse to be held liable ___________________ must be present? (Select all that apply.)

a.	A nurse-patient relationship.
b.	The nurse failed to perform in a reasonable manner.
c.	There was harm to the patient.
d.	The nurse was prudent in her performance.
e.	The nurse did not cause the patient harm.
f.	Duty does not exist.

 

 

 

29. Personal beliefs about the worth of an object, idea, custom, or attitude that influence a person’s behavior in a given situation are referred to as ___________.

 

 

30. Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.

Christensen: Foundations of Nursing, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 04: Vital Signs

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. The part of the body that maintains a balance between heat production and heat loss, regulating body temperature, is the:
2. thymus.
3. thyroid.
4. hypothalamus.
5. adrenal glands.

 

 

2. The type of body temperature that remains relatively constant is the:
3. surface.
4. rectal.
5. oral.
6. core.

 

 

3. The nurse uses cooling techniques to keep the body temperature below 105° F because such elevated temperature can:
4. cause excessive thirst.
5. cause excessive perspiration.
6. damage body cells.
7. increase heart rate.

 

4. The emergency department nurse quickly assesses the temperature of an unconscious patient who has been outside all night in below-freezing temperatures. The nurse is aware that death can occur if the temperature falls below:
5. 95.2° F.
6. 93.0° F.
7. 93.2° F.
8. 90.8° F.

 

 

5. A fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well is classified as:
6. constant.
7. intermittent.
8. remittent.
9. elevated.

 

 

6. Using the tympanic thermometer for a child, the nurse should pull the ear pinna:
7. upward and back.
8. parallel.
9. downward and back.
10. upward and forward.

 

 

7. To ensure optimum reception from a stethoscope, the nurse should place the earpieces pointing:
8. backward.
9. parallel to the ears.
10. toward the face.
11. downward.

 

 

8. The nurse uses the diaphragm of the stethoscope to best assess:
9. carotid sounds.
10. lung sounds.
11. vascular sounds.
12. low-pitched sounds.

 

 

9. The nurse explains that the pulse—the expansion and contraction of an artery—is produced by contraction of the:
10. right atrium.
11. right ventricle.
12. left atrium.
13. left ventricle.

 

 

10. When assessing vital signs on a 40-year-old male, the nurse identifies a pulse rate of 120. This pulse is:
11. normal.
12. bradycardic.
13. dysrhythmic.
14. tachycardic.

 

11. The patient’s pulse is below 60. Because the nurse is aware that the patient is not receiving digoxin, the nurse believes that the bradycardia might be caused by:
12. low exercise tolerance.
13. unrelieved severe pain.
14. excessive bed rest.
15. a prone position.

 

 

12. If a peripheral pulse needs to be assessed quickly, the nurse should select the:
13. radial pulse.
14. brachial pulse.
15. carotid pulse.
16. pedal pulse.

 

 

13. The exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen that takes place at the alveolar level is termed:
14. tachypnea.
15. internal respiration.
16. external respiration.
17. bradypnea.

 

14. Because a cardiac arrhythmia is suspected, the nurse is concerned with the findings of an apical rate of 88 and a radial rate of 80. The difference between the two rates is termed:
15. pulse pressure.
16. unequal pulses.
17. pulse deficit.
18. tachycardia.

 

 

15. The nurse is alarmed when a patient with a severe head injury of the occipital lobe has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute because this may indicate an injury to the:
16. cerebellum.
17. medulla oblongata.
18. cortex.
19. cerebrum.

 

 

16. The respirations of a patient who is demonstrating pursed-lip breathing, flared nostrils, and retractions are described as:
17. tachypnea.
18. stertorous.
19. dyspnea.
20. Cheyne-Stokes.

 

17. A nurse assesses a neonate’s temperature by using a temporal artery scanner. If the neonate’s temperature is 96 F, the nurse should:
18. record the findings.
19. notify the physician.
20. check the axillary temperature.
21. check the tympanic temperature.

 

18. A nurse assesses a neonate’s temperature by using a temporal artery scanner. If the neonate’s temperature is 99.5 F, the nurse should:
19. record the findings.
20. notify the physician.
21. check the axillary temperature.
22. check the tympanic temperature.

 

 

19. A nurse assesses a patient’s dorsalis pedis pulse. If the pulse is difficult to feel and not palpable when only slight pressure is applied, the nurse should document this finding as a:
20. weak pulse.
21. normal pulse.
22. thready pulse.
23. bounding pulse.

 

 

20. A nurse assesses a patient’s dorsalis pedis pulse. If the pulse is not palpable when light pressure is applied, the nurse should document this finding as a:
21. weak pulse.
22. normal pulse.
23. thready pulse.
24. bounding pulse.

 

 

21. A nurse assesses a patient’s dorsalis pedis pulse. If the pulse is easily felt but not palpable when moderate pressure is applied, the nurse should document this finding as a:
22. weak pulse.
23. normal pulse.
24. thready pulse.
25. bounding pulse.

 

 

22. A nurse assesses a patient’s dorsalis pedis pulse. If the pulse feels full and springlike even under moderate pressure, the nurse should document this finding as a:
23. weak pulse.
24. normal pulse.
25. thready pulse.
26. bounding pulse.

 

 

23. When instructing a primary caregiver about keeping a daily log of blood pressure readings, the nurse should include what instruction(s)? (Select all that apply.)
24. Take the reading at different times during the day.
25. Apply the cuff approximately 2 inches above the antecubital fossa.
26. If unable to get a reading the first time, immediately reinflate the cuff.
27. Assess pulse with the bell of the stethoscope.
28. Apply the cuff snugly.

 

 

 

24. The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.

 

 

25. If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2° F, the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.

 

 

26. The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.

 

 

27. When assessing factors that may influence the patient’s pulse rate, what should the nurse take into consideration? (Select all that apply.)
28. Age
29. Sex
30. Emotion
31. Temperature
32. Physical activity