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General Organic And Biological Chemistry 7th Edition By H. Stephen Stoker – Test Bank

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General Organic And Biological Chemistry 7th Edition By H. Stephen Stoker – Test Bank

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CHAPTER_02_MEASUREMENTS_IN_CHEMISTRY

 

 

1. The “mathematical meaning” associated with the metric system prefixes centi, milli, and micro is, respectively,

  a. 10–2, 10–4, and 10–6 b. 10–2, 10–3, and 10–6
  c. 10–3, 10–6, and 10–9 d. 10–3, 10–9, and 10–12

 

ANSWER:   b

 

2. In which of the following sequences are the metric system prefixes listed in order of decreasing size?

  a. kilo giga mega b. milli nano micro
  c. mega kilo micro d. pico kilo deci

 

ANSWER:   c

 

3. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of terminology?

  a. kilogram – metric unit of mass
  b. milliliter – metric unit of volume
  c. meter – metric unit of length
  d. cubic centimeter – metric unit of length

 

ANSWER:   d

 

4. To what decimal position should a measurement be recorded if the smallest markings on the measurement scale are tenths of a centimeter?

  a. to the closest centimeter b. to the tenths of a centimeter
  c. to the hundredths of a centimeter d. to the thousandths of a centimeter

 

ANSWER:   c

 

5. In which one of the following measure numbers are all of the zeros significant?

  a. 0.0705 b. 3,300,000
  c. 0.000440 d. 3.945900

 

ANSWER:   d

 

6. In which of the following pairs of measured numbers does each member of the pair contain the same number of significant figures?

  a. 10.3 and 10.30 b. 800.0 and 80
  c. 0.03330 and 0.0333 d. 0.000096 and 960,000

 

ANSWER:   d

 

7. In which of the following cases is the given measurement correctly rounded to three significant figures?

  a. 479,000 becomes 479 b. 0.02235 becomes 0.0223
  c. 37.98 becomes 38.0 d. 49.400 becomes 49,400

 

ANSWER:   c

 

8. Which of the following would involve an exact number?

  a. the length of a table b. the mass of a bag of carrots
  c. the number of inches in a yard d. the surface area of a quilt

 

ANSWER:   c

 

9. The measurement 8310.90 expressed in scientific notation becomes

  a. b.
  c. d.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

10. What is the uncertainty associated with the measurement of 6.02 x 104?

  a. 100 b. 10
  c. 0.1 d. 0.01

 

ANSWER:   a

 

11. The calculator answer obtained from multiplying the measurements 64.49 and 6.57 is 423.70. Given the operational rules governing significant figures, this answer

  a. is correct as written b. should be rounded to 423.7
  c. should be rounded to 424 d. could be written as 423

 

ANSWER:   c

 

12. The correct answer obtained from adding the measurements 9.6, 4.79, and 5.352 contains

  a. two significant figures b. three significant figures
  c. four significant figures d. five significant figures

 

ANSWER:   b

 

13. The correct answer obtained by dividing the measurement by the measurement 2.876 x 10–9 is

  a. b.
  c. d.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

14. According to dimensional analysis, which of the following is the correct setup for the problem “How many milligrams are there in 85 kilograms?”

  a. 85 b. 85
  c. 85 d. 85

 

ANSWER:   b

 

15. How many conversion factors can be derived from the equality 60 seconds = 1 minute?

  a. two b. three
  c. four d. an unlimited number

 

ANSWER:   a

 

16. The density of an object is the ratio of its

  a. length to volume b. mass to height
  c. mass to volume d. length to mass

 

ANSWER:   c

 

17. If object A weighs 6.0 grams and has a volume of 3.0 mL and object B weighs 9.0 grams and has a volume of 2.25 mL

  a. B is less dense than A. b. A and B have equal densities.
  c. B is twice as dense as A. d. B is four times as dense as A.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

18. What is the mass, in grams, of 30.7 mL of a liquid if its density is 0.81 g/mL?

  a. 3.8 b. 25
  c. 4 d. 249

 

ANSWER:   b

 

19. Which of the following comparisons of the size of a degree on the major temperature scales is correct?

  a. A Kelvin degree is larger than a Celsius degree.
  b. A Fahrenheit degree and a Celsius degree are equal in size.
  c. A Fahrenheit degree is larger than a Kelvin degree.
  d. A Celsius degree and a Kelvin degree are equal in size.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

20. If the temperature of an object is 435oC, what is the temperature on a Kelvin scale?

  a. 162 K b. 608 K
  c. 672 K d. 708 K

 

ANSWER:   d

 

21. In which of the following pairings of metric system prefix and power of ten is the pairing incorrect?

  a. kilo- and 10–3
  b. micro- and 10–6
  c. deci- and 101
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

22. In which of the following pairs of units is the first listed unit 1000 times larger than the second?

  a. milligram and nanogram
  b. liter and centiliter
  c. kilometer and megameter
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   e

 

23. In which of the following sequences of measured numbers do all members of the sequence contain three significant figures?

  a. 3.03 and 3.30 and 0.033
  b. 78,000 and 0.00780 and 780
  c. 30.0 and 0.300 and 30,100
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

24. Which of the following digits in the measurement 654,300 seconds is an estimated digit?

  a. the last digit
  b. the next to last zero
  c. the three
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

25. Which of the following statements concerning the measured number 0.3030 is correct?

  a. Only one of the zeros in the number is significant.
  b. Rounded off to two significant figures the number becomes 0.30.
  c. Expressed in scientific notation the number becomes 3.03 × 10–2.
  d. More than one correct response.
  e. No correct response.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

26. Which of the following mathematical expressions is correctly evaluated?

  a.
  b. 103 × 104 = 1012
  c.
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   a

 

27. Which of the following measured numbers contains three significant figures and has a magnitude of less than one?

  a. 3.30 × 105
  b. 3.00 × 10–3
  c. 3.20 × 10–4
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

28. When expressed in scientific notation, the measured numbers 3200 and 3200.0 become, respectively,

  a. 3.2 × 103 and 3.200 × 103
  b. 3.2 × 103 and 3.2000 × 103
  c. 3.200 × 103 and 3.2000 × 103
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   b

 

29. Which of the following measured numbers has an uncertainty of 0.01 associated with it?

  a. 32.930
  b. 3.02 × 106
  c. 3.0 × 10–1
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

30. Which of the following statements concerning conversion factors is incorrect?

  a. English-to-English conversion factors come from defined relationships
  b. Metric-to-metric conversions come from measured relationships
  c. English-to-English conversion factors always contain exact numbers
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

31. Which of the following conversion factors would limit a calculation to two significant figures?

  a.
  b.
  c.
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   e

 

32. Density can be used as a conversion factor to convert from

  a. mass to volume
  b. volume to mass
  c. metric unit mass to English unit mass
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

33. The density of table sugar is 1.59 g/mL. It is true that

  a. 2.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 1.17 mL.
  b. 3.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 1.97 mL.
  c. 5.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 3.14 mL.
  d. More than one correct response
  e. No correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

34. Which of the following statements concerning the three major temperature scales is correct?

  a. Kelvin temperatures are always positive.
  b. The equation for converting from Celsius to Kelvin involves the number 273.
  c. The freezing point of water has a lower numerical value on the Kelvin scale than on the Fahrenheit scale.
  d. More than one correct response.
  e. No correct response.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

35. In which of the following pairs of temperature readings are the two members of the pair equivalent to each other?

  a. 32°F and 273 K
  b. 0°C and 373 K
  c. 0°C and 40°F
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   a

 

36. Statements:

(1) The meaning of a metric system prefix is independent of the base unit it modifies.
(2) “Trailing zeros” at the end of a measured number are never significant.
(3) The answer to the problem 105/10-3 is 102.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

37. Statements:

(1) In outer space, an astronaut may be weightless but never massless.
(2) The metric system prefixes milli and micro differ in mathematical meaning by a factor of 1000.
(3) The addition of 273 to a Fahrenheit temperature reading will convert it to a Kelvin temperature reading.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

38. Statements:

(1) The measured number 2.410 × 10-3 contains three significant figures.
(2) The specific heat of water is higher than that of most other substances.
(3) The equation 1 kg = 106 mg is a correct mathematical statement.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

39. Statements:

(1) The answer to the addition problem 3.21 + 32 + 3.22 should have an uncertainty of hundredths.
(2) The measurement 653,899, when rounded to five significant figures, becomes 65,390.
(3) The higher the specific heat of a substance, the more its temperature will change when it absorbs a given amount of heat.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

40. Statements:

(1) The conversion factor 103 m/1 km contains an unlimited number of significant figures.
(2) Density may be used as a conversion factor to convert from mass to volume.
(3) The equation 2.33 lb = 625 g is a correct mathematical statement.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

41. Statements:

(1) A deciliter is equal to 100 milliliters.
(2) The Kelvin temperature scale is closely related mathematically to the Celsius temperature scale.
(3) Measurements cannot be exact because two estimated digits are always recorded as part of any measurement.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

42. Statements:

(1) The answer to the calculation 12.00 × (6.00 × 1023) should contain three significant figures.
(2) A meter is slightly larger than a yard, and a liter is slightly larger than a quart.
(3) The numbers 3.30 × 10-1 and 3.30 × 101 both have a magnitude of less than one.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

43. Statements:

(1) The size of the degree is the same on the Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scales.
(2) The measurement 62,300 has an uncertainty of ± 100.
(3) The answer to the calculation 8.45 + 10.40 should contain four significant figures.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

44. Statements:

(1) The measured numbers 244,000 and 0.000244 contain the same number of significant figures.
(2) One cubic centimeter is equal to ten milliliters.
(3) The conversion factor 1 in/2.54 cm, when used as written, would decrease unit size.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

CHAPTER_04_CHEMICAL_BONDING_THE_IONIC_BOND_MODEL

 

 

1. For representative elements, valence electrons are those electrons located

  a. closest to the nucleus. b. in the outermost subshell.
  c. in the outermost shell. d. in s orbitals.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

2. How many electrons appear in the Lewis symbol for an element whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p4?

  a. 2 b. 4
  c. 6 d. 8

 

ANSWER:   c

 

3. Elements in groups IA and VIIA of the periodic table possess, respectively, how many valence electrons?

  a. 1 and 1 b. 1 and 7
  c. 7 and 1 d. 8 and 8

 

ANSWER:   b

 

4. The “octet rule” relates to the number eight because:

  a. only atoms with eight valence electrons undergo chemical reaction.
  b. ions with charges of +8 and –8 are very stable.
  c. atoms, during compound formation, frequently obtain eight valence electrons.
  d. all electron subshells can hold eight electrons.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

5. Formation of a positive ion is the result of an atom:

  a. losing one or more protons. b. losing one or more electrons.
  c. gaining one or more protons. d. gaining one or more electrons.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

6. How many total electrons are present in a N3– ion?

  a. 4 b. 7
  c. 10 d. 12

 

ANSWER:   c

 

7. Elements in groups IIA and VIIA of the periodic table would, respectively, be expected to form ions with charges of

  a. +2 and +7 b. -2 and -7
  c. +2 and +1 d. +2 and -1

 

ANSWER:   d

 

8. Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with the noble gas neon?

  a. Na+ b. F
  c. C4+ d. N3-

 

ANSWER:   c

 

9. The correct formula for the ionic compound containing Tl3+ and Te2- ions would be

  a. TlTe b. Tl3Te2
  c. Tl2Te3 d. Tl2Te

 

ANSWER:   c

 

10. The correct formula for the ionic compound that might be formed between Na and As is

  a. Na3As b. NaAs3
  c. Na2As3 d. Na3As2

 

ANSWER:   a

 

11. In which of the following ionic compounds are ions with a +1 charge present?

  a. Li2Se b. Al2Te3
  c. Mg2Si d. SrO

 

ANSWER:   a

 

12. In which of the following pairs of compounds are both members of the pair ionic compounds?

  a. PI3 and HBr b. H2S and NCl3
  c. LiF and H2O d. LiI and NiO

 

ANSWER:   d

 

13. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the structure of the ionic compound LiBr?

  a. Alternating layers of Li and Br atoms are present.
  b. Clusters of Li+ ions are balanced out by clusters of Br ions.
  c. Individual molecules containing a Li+ ion and a Br ion are present.
  d. Each cation present is surrounded by six anions in an extended array.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

14. The correct name for the ionic compound Al2Se3 is

  a. aluminum selenide b. aluminum(III) selenide
  c. aluminum triselenide d. dialuminum triselenide

 

ANSWER:   a

 

15. The correct name for the ionic compound Fe2Se3 is

  a. iron selenide b. iron(III) selenide
  c. iron triselenide d. diiron triselenide

 

ANSWER:   b

 

16. The Roman numeral III in the name iron(III) oxide indicates that:

  a. there are three times as many iron atoms present as oxygen atoms.
  b. there are three iron atoms per formula unit.
  c. there are three oxygen atoms per formula unit.
  d. iron is present in the form of +3 ions.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

17. Which of the following compounds contains four atoms per formula unit?

  a. chromium(III) nitride b. tin(II) iodide
  c. magnesium fluoride d. ruthenium(III) chloride

 

ANSWER:   d

 

18. Which of the following statements about polyatomic ions is correct?

  a. All have names which end in -ate.
  b. All must contain one of the halogens.
  c. Negative ions are more common than positive ions.
  d. All carry a charge of two.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

19. The formulas of the sulfate ion, the nitrate ion, and the phosphate ion are, respectively,

  a. SO32–, NO32–, PO32– b. SO42–, NO42–, PO42–
  c. SO42–, NO3, PO42– d. SO42–, NO3, PO43–

 

ANSWER:   d

 

20. Which one of the following compounds has a formula that contains parentheses?

  a. barium carbonate b. lithium hydroxide
  c. strontium hydroxide d. ammonium hydroxide

 

ANSWER:   c

 

21. For which of the following elements is the listed number of valence electrons correct?

  a. Al – 3 valence electrons
  b. Cl – 5 valence electrons
  c. Si – 2 valence electrons
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   a

 

22. Which of the following elements would have a Lewis symbol that contains five electrons?

  a. nitrogen
  b. fluorine
  c. phosphorus
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

23. In which of the following pairs of ions are the two members of the pair isoelectronic?

  a. S2– and Cl
  b. Na+ and K+
  c. Al3+ and N3–
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

24. Which of the following elements would be expected to form a monoatomic ion with a charge of +2?

  a. oxygen
  b. sulfur
  c. magnesium
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

25. In which of the following pairings is the chemical formula not consistent with the ions shown?

  a. M2+, X3–, M3X2
  b. M2+, X, MX2
  c. M+, X3–, MX3
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

26. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the number of electrons lost or gained by a representative element during ion formation?

  a. The number is usually three or less.
  b. The number is governed by the octet rule.
  c. The number is related to the position of the element in the periodic table.
  d. More than one correct response.
  e. No correct response.

 

ANSWER:   e

 

27. The mechanism for ionic bond formation always involves the transferring of:

  a. electrons from nonmetallic atoms to metallic atoms.
  b. protons from the nucleus of metallic atoms to the nucleus of nonmetallic atoms.
  c. sufficient electrons to produce ions of equal but opposite charge.
  d. more than one correct response.
  e. no correct response.

 

ANSWER:   e

 

28. In which of the following pairs of ionic compounds do both members of the pair contain +1 ions?

  a. KCl and CaO
  b. Na3N and Li2S
  c. AlCl3 and MgF2
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   b

 

29. In the formation of which of the following ionic compounds is the number of electrons transferred per formula unit equal to three?

  a. AlN
  b. K3N
  c. BaCl2
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

30. Which of the following pairings of compound name and compound formula is incorrect?

  a. sodium oxide – Na2O
  b. magnesium sulfide – MgS2
  c. potassium chloride – KCl
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   b

 

31. Which of the following ionic compounds would have a name that contains the Roman numeral III?

  a. AlCl3
  b. FeBr3
  c. Cu3N
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   b

 

32. In which of the following compounds is there a one-to-two ratio between positive and negative ions?

  a. calcium sulfide
  b. magnesium bromide
  c. lead(IV) oxide
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

33. In which of the following pairs of polyatomic ions do both members of the pair have the same charge?

  a. sulfate and phosphate
  b. carbonate and hydroxide
  c. ammonium and nitrate
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   e

 

34. Which of the following pairings of compound name and compound formula is incorrect?

  a. sodium acetate – NaC2H3O2
  b. barium sulfate – BaSO4
  c. magnesium nitrate – MgNO3
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   c

 

35. Which of the following compounds contain more than 10 atoms per formula unit?

  a. ammonium phosphate
  b. aluminum carbonate
  c. iron(III) cyanide
  d. more than one correct response
  e. no correct response

 

ANSWER:   d

 

36. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) Representative elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons.
(2) Discrete molecules do not exist in ionic compounds.
(3) A sulfate ion has one less oxygen than a sulfite ion.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

37. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) All ionic compounds that contain metal ions have names that contain Roman numerals.
(2) Ionic compounds tend to have high melting points and tend to be good conductors of electricity when in the molten state.
(3) Three ions are present in one formula unit of a compound that contains Na+ and O2- ions.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

38. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices:

(1) If an atom loses one or more electrons, it becomes negatively charged because protons now outnumber electrons.
(2) Nitrogen, a group VA element, possesses five valence electrons.
(3) Polyatomic ions are generally not very stable and usually lose their identity during chemical reactions.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

39. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) An atom with the electron configuration 1s22s22p2 possesses two valence electrons.
(2) The formula of the ionic compounds that contains Ba2+ and N3- ions is Ba2N3.
(3) The polyatomic ions nitrate and azide are both tetraatomic entities.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

40. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) Ionic bonds result from the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons.
(2) The compound copper(II) phosphate contains eight oxygen atoms per formula unit.
(3) Ionic compounds that contain fixed charge metals cannot contain polyatomic ions.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

41. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) The number of valence electrons possessed by an atom can never exceed four.
(2) Binary ionic compounds containing two nonmetals do not occur.
(3) The name of the ionic compound Cu2S is copper(II) sulfide.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

42. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) The ions O2– and S2– are isoelectronic.
(2) The symbol for an atom of X that has lost two electrons is X2–.
(3) In all ionic compounds the total charge of the ions present per formula unit must add up to zero.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

43. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) The octet rule is used to determine the number of valence electrons an atom possesses.
(2) The formula for the compound sodium carbonate contains parenthesis.
(3) Group IIA and VIA elements form ions that carry two units of charge.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

44. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) Calcium sulfide is a compound in which both types of ions present have the same electron configuration, that of the noble gas argon.
(2) The charge on the positive ions present in the compound Al2S3 is +3.
(3) The polyatomic ions ammonium and cyanide do not contain oxygen.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

45. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices.

(1) The most abundant ion in hard water is usually Na+.
(2) Fresh water purified for drinking purposes contains no ions.
(3) Tooth enamel contains both monatomic and polyatomic ions.

  a. All three statements are true.
  b. Two of the three statements are true.
  c. Only one of the statements is true.
  d. None of the statements are true.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

46. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s1, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list.

  a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons
  c. 5 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

 

ANSWER:   a

 

47. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p5, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list.

  a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons
  c. 5 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

 

ANSWER:   d

 

48. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p3, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list.

  a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons
  c. 5 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

 

ANSWER:   c

 

49. For a group VA element, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list.

  a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons
  c. 5 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

 

ANSWER:   c

 

50. For an element with the Lewis symbol , choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list.

  a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons
  c. 4 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

 

ANSWER:   c

 

51. For the ion or element combinations of M3+ and X2–, choose the correct formula for the compound produced.

  a. MX b. M2X
  c. MX2 d. M2X3

 

ANSWER:   d

 

52. For the ion or element combinations of M2+ and X, choose the correct formula for the compound produced.

  a. MX b. M2X
  c. MX2 d. M2X3

 

ANSWER:   c

 

53. For the ion or element combinations of M2+ and X2–, choose the correct formula for the compound produced.

  a. MX b. M2X
  c. MX2 d. M2X3

 

ANSWER:   a

 

54. Choose the correct formula of the compound formed when M, which has two valence electrons and X, which has seven valence electrons are combined.

  a. MX b. M2X
  c. MX2 d. M2X3

 

ANSWER:   c

 

55. Choose the correct formula of the compound formed when M, which is a group IIIA element and X, which is a group VIA element are combined.

  a. MX b. M2X
  c. MX2 d. M2X3

 

ANSWER:   d

 

56. Choose a formula from the response list with -2 charged monoatomic ions present.

  a. K3N b. AlF3
  c. CaSO4 d. (NH4)2S

 

ANSWER:   d

 

57. Choose a formula from the response list with +1 charged monoatomic ions present.

  a. K3N b. AlF3
  c. CaSO4 d. (NH4)2S

 

ANSWER:   a

 

58. Choose a formula from the response list with where the positive and negative ions present carry the same amount of charge.

  a. K3N b. AlF3
  c. CaSO4 d. (NH4)2S

 

ANSWER:   c

 

59. Choose a formula from the response list where a greater number of negative ions are present than positive ions.

  a. K3N b. AlF3
  c. CaSO4 d. (NH4)2S

 

ANSWER:   b

 

60. Choose a formula from the response list where two ions are present per formula unit.

  a. K3N b. AlF3
  c. CaSO4 d. (NH4)2S

 

ANSWER:   c

 

61. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains the elements nitrogen and hydrogen.

  a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion
  c. nitrate ion d. sulfate ion

 

ANSWER:   b

 

62. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains three oxygen atoms.

  a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion
  c. nitrate ion d. sulfate ion

 

ANSWER:   c

 

63. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains a total of four atoms.

  a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion
  c. nitrate ion d. sulfate ion

 

ANSWER:   c

 

64. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains one hydrogen atom.

  a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion
  c. nitrate ion d. sulfate ion

 

ANSWER:   a

 

65. Choose the polyatomic ion that has a negative two charge.

  a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion
  c. nitrate ion d. sulfate ion

 

ANSWER:   d

 

66. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of sodium oxide.

  a. two atoms per formula unit
  b. three atoms per formula unit
  c. four atoms per formula unit
  d. five or more atoms per formula unit

 

ANSWER:   b

 

67. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of calcium chloride.

  a. two atoms per formula unit
  b. three atoms per formula unit
  c. four atoms per formula unit
  d. five or more atoms per formula unit

 

ANSWER:   b

 

68. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of copper(I) sulfide.

  a. two atoms per formula unit
  b. three atoms per formula unit
  c. four atoms per formula unit
  d. five or more atoms per formula unit

 

ANSWER:   b

 

69. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of iron(II) hydroxide.

  a. two atoms per formula unit
  b. three atoms per formula unit
  c. four atoms per formula unit
  d. five or more atoms per formula unit

 

ANSWER:   d

 

70. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of aluminum phosphate.

  a. two atoms per formula unit
  b. three atoms per formula unit
  c. four atoms per formula unit
  d. five or more atoms per formula unit

 

ANSWER:   d

 

 

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