Name: HDEV 3rd Edition by Spencer A. Rathus - Test Bank - Eazyquizes
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HDEV 3rd Edition by Spencer A. Rathus – Test Bank

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Chapter 2—Heredity and Conception

MULTIPLE CHOICE

The field of biology that studies heredity is called:

a.	etiology.	c.	ecology..
b.	genetics.	d.	eugenics.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Genetics influence:

a.	physical traits.
b.	physical traits and social characteristics.
c.	physical traits and psychological problems.
d.	physical traits, social characteristics, and psychological problems.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called:

a.	nuclei.	c.	phosphates.
b.	genes.	d.	cytosines.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What shape best describes chromosomes?

a.	cones	c.	circles
b.	rods	d.	octagons

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

A normal human cell contains _____ chromosomes organized into _____ pairs.

a.	20; 10	c.	46; 23
b.	32; 16	d.	48; 24

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Polygenic traits are those that are :

a.	are determined by a single pair of genes.	c.	are transmitted by the mother.
b.	are uncommon in humans.	d.	a result of several pairs of genes.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

According to the International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium (2006), we have _____ genes in every cell of our bodies.

a.	2,000-2,500	c.	200,000-250,000
b.	20,000-25,000	d.	2,000,000-2,500,000

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

If you were walking through a hardware stores such as Home Depot, which of the following items for sale would be the most likely to make you think of a strand of DNA?

a.	a twisting ladder.	c.	an aisle of pipes and tubes.
b.	a rack of garden stakes.	d.	a mixed-up tub of screws and nails.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

In DNA, adenine is paired with:

a.	thymine.	c.	cytosine.
b.	guanine.	d.	polynine.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

In DNA adenine is paired with _____ and cytosine with _____.

a.	thymine; simple sugar	c.	guanine; simple sugar
b.	thymine; guanine	d.	guanine; thymine

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Of the 46 chromosomes in a normal human cell, how many are contributed by the mother?

a.	1	c.	23
b.	22	d.	It depends on the sex of the child

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?

a.	they regulate the development of traits
b.	they determine the gender of the child
c.	they work together with lutein to influence development
d.	they negate the influence of one’s environment in the development of traits

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

DNA stands for:

a.	deoxyribonucleic acid	c.	diophosphate nucleic acetone
b.	dionyotic acetate	d.	dionucleic acid

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During mitosis:

a.	sperm and ova cells are created.
b.	23 chromosomes are created.
c.	new cells with identical DNA are created.
d.	mutations are impossible.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

A(n) ________ refers to a sudden variation in a heritable characteristic that occurs by accident or chance.

a.	mutation	c.	germination
b.	teratogen	d.	ovum

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

“Reduction division” is another term for:

a.	mitosis.	c.	meiosis.
b.	cell death.	d.	neural pruning.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which method of cell reproduction allows for more genetic “variability?”

a.	cloning	c.	cross-fertilization
b.	meiosis	d.	mitosis

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Of the twenty-three pairs of chromosomes, twenty-two pairs look alike and possess genetic information concerning the same traits. These are called :

a.	sex chromosomes.	c.	autosomes.
b.	homosomes.	d.	monosomes.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How many chromosomes does a cell created during meiosis contain?

a.	23	c.	43
b.	25	d.	46

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What factor determines the sex of a child?

a.	the presence or absence of teratogens at the time of conception
b.	It depends on what time in the ovulation cycle conception occurs.
c.	the age of the mother
d.	the sex chromosome received from the father

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The typical sex chromosome pattern for males is _____.

a.	XX	c.	XYY
b.	XY	d.	XXY

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is _____.

a.	XX	c.	XYY
b.	XY	d.	XXY

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

A zygote that divides into two cells that separate results in:

a.	identical twins.	c.	conjoined twins.
b.	fraternal twins.	d.	mitosis.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which pair of relatives has the most similar genetic material?

a.	dizygotic twins	c.	cousins
b.	non-twin siblings	d.	monozygotic twins

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: p. 32 OBJ: 2-1

MSC: TYPE: Application

Monozygotic twins are to dizygotic twins as

a.	sharing 50% of genes is to sharing 100% of genes
b.	sharing 100% of genes is to sharing 50% of genes
c.	sharing 50% of genes is to sharing 25% of genes
d.	sharing 25% of genes is to sharing 50% of genes

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

A woman who gives birth to dizygotic twins:

a.	is most likely an Asian-American.
b.	has a decreased chance of subsequent pregnancies.
c.	is likely to be a young mother.
d.	has an increased chance of giving birth to twins in future pregnancies.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Each member of a pair of genes is referred to as a(n) ________.

a.	homozygous trait	c.	autosome
b.	heterozygous trait	d.	allele

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What is it called when someone has two alleles for the same trait?

a.	heterozygous	c.	monozygotic
b.	dizygotic	d.	homozygous

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

If a child receives a dominant allele for “tallness” from one parent and a recessive allele for “shortness” from the other, what do we know?

a.	The child will be average in height.	c.	The child will probably be tall.
b.	The child has two short parents.	d.	The child will probably be born short.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

If a child receives an allele for blue eyes and an allele for brown eyes, then the child is:

a.	going to have blue eyes.	c.	heterozygous for that trait.
b.	homozygous for that trait.	d.	exhibiting the law of dominance.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Someone with two alleles for brown eyes:

a.	is homozygous for that trait.	c.	is referred to as “atypical.”
b.	has eye color as a co-dominant trait.	d.	will have blue eyes.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Do you remember learning “When two vowels go walking, the first does the talking” as part of your English lessons? If we apply that lesson to genetics, finish the following thought: “When a dominant allele and a recessive allele go walking…”

a.	the dominant allele does the talking.
b.	the recessive allele does the talking.
c.	both alleles do the talking at the same time.
d.	the alleles cancel each other out and the trait will not appear.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

If an individual gets a recessive allele for eye color from both parents:

a.	the gender of the child will determine if that trait is shown.
b.	the recessive trait will develop in the child.
c.	the trait will develop 50% of the time.
d.	the trait will be turned off and the dominant trait will be expressed.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

People who bear one dominant and one recessive gene for a trait are:

a.	going to automatically pass that characteristic on to their offspring.
b.	definitely going to develop that characteristic.
c.	called “carriers” of the recessive gene.
d.	not going to pass that characteristic on to their offspring.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Jill has the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease in her body, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered

a.	a carrier of Von Willebrand disease.	c.	dizygotic for Von Willebrand disease.
b.	monozygotic for Von Willebrand disease.	d.	homozygous for Von Willebrand disease.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following would not be considered a multifactorial problem?

a.	cystic fibrosis.	c.	Diabetes mellitus
b.	epilepsy.	d.	peptic ulcers

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What do we know about Down’s syndrome?

a.	It is caused by a defect on the sex chromosomes.
b.	It is significantly more likely in boys than girls.
c.	It is caused by a virus during pregnancy.
d.	It is increasingly likely among individuals born to older parents.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Individuals with Down’s syndrome:

a.	do not typically suffer adjustment problems.
b.	have few, if any, physical problems.
c.	have moderate to severe cognitive impairments.
d.	have chromosomal damage on the 8^th chromosome.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Down’s syndrome is linked to:

a.	alcohol abuse by the father.	c.	sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
b.	an extra 21^st chromosome.	d.	alcohol abuse by the mother.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following describes the sex chromosomal structure of “supermales?”

a.	XY	c.	XYY
b.	XXY	d.	Y

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Of every 500 males born, about how many are statistically likely to have Klinefelter syndrome?

a.	zero, because this disorder affects only females
b.	50
c.	5
d.	1

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

In comparison to the average male population, individuals with Klinefelter syndrome:

a.	produce more estrogen than normal.	c.	produce more testosterone than normal.
b.	produce less estrogen than normal.	d.	produce less testosterone than normal.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Rico is a man who has enlarged breasts and suffers from mild mental retardation. He has a particular problem learning language skills, and his body produces lower than normal levels of testosterone. From which condition does Rico suffer?

a.	Klinefelter syndrome	c.	Tay-Sachs disease
b.	Turner syndrome	d.	Down syndrome

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

A girl with Turner syndrome would probably:

a.	have unusually well-developed skills in mathematics.
b.	produce higher than normal amounts of estrogen.
c.	have abnormal external genitalia.
d.	be infertile.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Girls with Turner’s syndrome:

a.	have visible physical abnormalities.	c.	produce more testosterone than normal.
b.	produce low levels of estrogen.	d.	are more likely to give birth to twins.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Klinefelter syndrome occurs when:

a.	genetic females have an extra X chromosome.
b.	genetic females have an extra Y chromosome.
c.	genetic males have an extra X chromosome.
d.	genetic males have an extra Y chromosome.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Compared to girls with XX sex chromosomes, girls with Turner’s syndrome:

a.	have an XXX chromosomal pattern.	c.	have an OO chromosomal pattern.
b.	have an XXY chromosomal pattern.	d.	have an XO chromosomal pattern.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

If a child is diagnosed with phenylketonuria, they

a.	cannot eat fruits or vegetables.
b.	have damage to the 21^st pair of chromosomes.
c.	should be placed on a special diet at soon as possible.
d.	usually live for only a few weeks.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Of the following disorders, the one with which a person would be least likely to be diagnosed is:

a.	Huntington’s disease.	c.	Klinefelter syndrome.
b.	phenylketonuria.	d.	Turner’s syndrome.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Huntington’s disease is characterized by all but which of the following symptoms?

a.	uncontrollable muscle movements
b.	loss of intellectual functioning
c.	personality change
d.	in ability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The individual who would be most likely to develop sickle-cell anemia is:

a.	a European American	c.	a Native American
b.	an African American	d.	an Asian American

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Sickle-cell anemia is caused by:

a.	a mutation of the 13^th chromosome.
b.	a single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
c.	a recessive gene.
d.	high levels of cholesterol and blood sugar.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Approximately _____ African Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell anemia.

a.	1 in every 5	c.	1 in every 20
b.	1 in every 10	d.	1 in every 100

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following illnesses involves a degenerative breakdown of the central nervous system?

a.	Tay-Sachs disease	c.	Cystic fibrosis
b.	Huntington’s disease	d.	Klinefelter syndrome

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to have Tay-Sachs disease?

a.	a 4-year old child of Jewish descent	c.	a 5-year old European American
b.	a 10-year old African American	d.	a 20-year old Hispanic male

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to have Tay-Sachs disease?

a.	Mordecai, an 8-year-old boy	c.	Shira-Leia, a 2-year-old girl
b.	Yisroel, a 4-year-old boy	d.	Brindel, a 1-year-old girl

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Cystic fibrosis is caused by:

a.	incomplete mitosis.
b.	an abnormality in the 21^st pair of chromosomes.
c.	a recessive gene.
d.	a dominant gene.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Hemophilia is:

a.	a disease that only affects females.
b.	carried on the X chromosome.
c.	caused by damage to the 14^th chromosomal pair.
d.	recessive with the father’s chromosomes.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following facts about color blindness is accurate?

a.	It is an enzymatic disorder.	c.	It is a sex-linked abnormality.
b.	It is a protein-based disorder.	d.	It is found only in females.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Sex-linked diseases are more likely to affect sons of female carriers because:

a.	they are carried on the Y chromosome.
b.	they are carried on dominant genes.
c.	males only have one X chromosome, which they inherit from their mothers.
d.	males only have one X chromosome, which they inherit from their fathers.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

The primary purpose of genetic counseling is to:

a.	advise couples to abort unborn children.
b.	prove that a child will develop a certain illness.
c.	assist would-be parents in making procreation decisions.
d.	outline the genetic risks of unprotected sex.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following people is most likely to be given an amniocentesis?

a.	an African-American female	c.	a female younger than age 20
b.	an Asian-American female	d.	a female over the age of 35

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which form of prenatal testing involves taking fluid from around the sac that contains the fetus?

a.	chorionic villus sampling	c.	ultrasound sonography
b.	amniocentesis	d.	alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The biggest drawback to amniocentesis is that it can cause:

a.	miscarriages in 1 of every 100 women who undergo the procedure.
b.	Cesarean deliveries.
c.	mental retardation.
d.	the unborn child to be sterile.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

CVS stands for:

a.	cervical variability study.	c.	chorionic variability sampling.
b.	chorionic villus sampling.	d.	cervical villus sampling.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true regarding amniocentesis and CVS?

a.	The risks of each procedure are equivalent.
b.	Both amniocentesis and CVS are performed 14 to 16 weeks after conception.
c.	Both procedures carry a small risk of causing a miscarriage.
d.	Both amniocentesis and CVS involve the examination of villi from the membrane that envelops the amniotic sac and fetus.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

An ultrasound works by:

a.	using x-ray photography to take a picture of the unborn child.
b.	stimulating movements in the fetus that can be tracked using an internal camera.
c.	producing picture called a “cat-scan.”
d.	reflecting sound waves off of the fetus.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

A sonogram is produced by using:

a.	ultrasound.	c.	chorionic villus sampling.
b.	fetoscopy.	d.	amniocentesis.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

____ is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida.

a.	Genetic counseling	c.	An ultrasound
b.	An alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay	d.	A Rh compatibility test

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Stephanie and Zack are expecting their first child. Their obstetrician recommends that they have an alpha-fetoprotein assay, because it can be used to:

a.	assess sex chromosome abnormalities.	c.	assess the degree of mental retardation.
b.	detect neural tube defects.	d.	measure enzyme levels in the fetus.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-1 The Influence of Heredity on Development

OBJ: 2-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

The genetic form or constitution of a person as determined by heredity is their:

a.	phenotype.	c.	genotype.
b.	temperament.	d.	personality.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The actual characteristics or traits that a person displays are referred to as their:

a.	phenotype.	c.	genotype.
b.	temperament.	d.	personality.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Our _____ reflect(s) both genetic and environmental influences.

a.	phenotype	c.	chromosomes
b.	genes	d.	genotype

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following is true about children and siblings, assuming that they are not identical twins?

a.	They share about 50% of their genetic material.
b.	They share recessive genes only.
c.	They share dominant genes only.
d.	They share about 25% of their genetic material.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Monozygotic twins:

a.	share 50% of their genetic material.
b.	are formed from two eggs but fertilized by the same sperm.
c.	are as different as typical siblings.
d.	will look very similar in physical appearance.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Berta and Rosie are dizygotic twins. Which of the following statement is probably the most applicable to these sisters?

a.	They will share 50% of their genes.
b.	They were formed from two eggs that were fertilized by the same sperm.
c.	They are very likely to be virtually identical in their physical appearance.
d.	They will share 100% of their genes.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which of the following would probably exert the most influence over the behavioral similarity of a pair of monozygotic twins?

a.	having parents and others who treat them alike.
b.	the degree of genetic similarity they share.
c.	whether the twins are male or female.
d.	whether their mother had an amniocentesis during the pregnancy.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which of the following are monozygotic twins more likely to inherit than dizygotic twins?

a.	schizophrenia
b.	depression and schizophrenia
c.	autism, depression, and schizophrenia
d.	autism, depression, schizophrenia, and a vulnerability to alcoholism

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Application

If an adopted child is more similar on a particular characteristic to his/her natural parents than to the adoptive parents, we can conclude that:

a.	the adoptive parents have tried very hard to raise the child as their own.
b.	heredity is solely responsible for who we become.
c.	environment is solely responsible for who we become.
d.	genetics play a role in the development of that particular characteristic.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-2 Heredity and the Environment

OBJ: 2-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

At birth, the typical human female will contain:

a.	enough ova to be fertile for 10 years.	c.	around 400,000 ova.
b.	no ova, they only develop during puberty.	d.	millions of ova.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During menstruation:

a.	a female is more likely to get pregnant than at any other time.
b.	an unfertilized egg is discharged.
c.	a fertilized egg undergoes meiosis.
d.	a fertilized egg undergoes mitosis.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

a.	contains 46 chromosomes.	c.	contains two X chromosomes.
b.	is significantly larger than an egg cell.	d.	is more likely to produce a girl than a boy.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true of a sperm cell?

a.	It is significantly larger than the egg cell.
b.	It contains two Y chromosomes.
c.	It does not determine the gender of the developing child.
d.	It is one of the smallest types of cells in the body.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Anna and Jason have recently decided to attempt to get pregnant. Jason says, “I really hope our first child is a boy!” Which of the following would be the most accurate response for Anna to make?

a.	Well, sperm cells with a Y chromosome swim faster than those with an X, so you may just get your wish!
b.	That probably won’t happen, honey, because for every 100 boys who are conceived there are 120 to 150 girls who are conceived.
c.	That will probably be the case, because approximately 80% of “oldest siblings” are boys.
d.	Well, I don’t think you have a say in the matter because the mother’s egg determines the sex of the baby.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Application

Approximately how many sperm cells are contained in the average ejaculation of semen?

a.	1000	c.	350,000
b.	150 million	d.	2.5 billion

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Only 1 in 1,000 sperm will ever arrive in the vicinity of an ovum. Of the following, how many are known factors that prevent a sperm cell from reaching an ovum after ejaculation? (a) gravity, (b) vaginal acidity, (c) current of vaginal fluid coming from the cervix, (d) the length of the fallopian tubes.

a.	1	c.	3
b.	2	d.	4

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Conception has occurred when:

a.	the egg cell is released from the ovary.
b.	the sperm cell is released from the testis.
c.	the chromosomes from the egg cell reject the chromosomes from the sperm cell.
d.	the chromosomes from an egg and a sperm combine to form 23 new pairs with a unique set of genetic instructions.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The term “infertility” is typically applied after a couple has failed to conceive after:

a.	four attempts to get pregnant.
b.	one year of attempts.
c.	four years of attempts.
d.	two miscarriages in the fourth month of pregnancy.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

In American couples, infertility occurs in approximately:

a.	one in every 6 or 7 couples.	c.	one in every 25 couples.
b.	one in every 15 couples.	d.	one in every 50 couples.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

_____ can cause infertility problems in men.

a.	Excess protein in the diet.	c.	Use of drugs.
b.	Lack of exercise.	d.	Excessive masturbation.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The sperm’s ability to move is called:

a.	the backstroke.	c.	evolution.
b.	propulsion.	d.	motility.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The most common infertility problem in women is:

a.	irregular or absent ovulation.
b.	endometriosis.
c.	barriers to the passageways through which the ovum must pass.
d.	PID.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following describes the process by which sperm is injected into the uterus at the time of ovulation?

a.	IVF	c.	donor IVF
b.	artificial insemination	d.	none of the above

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Surrogate mothers:

a.	provide eggs to be implanted into another woman.
b.	are allowed to keep the babies that they carry.
c.	usually give birth to twins.
d.	carry newly conceived babies to term for other women.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Shayla has a fertility problem where she does not produce ova on her own. To overcome this problem, she decides that she will undergo ________ in-vitro fertilization, where an ovum from another woman is fertilized with sperm from her husband and is then implanted in her uterus.

a.	transfer	c.	surrogate
b.	perinatal	d.	donor

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Application

What is the term for the process by which ova are fertilized in vitro, tested for sex chromosomal structure, and then embryos of the desired sex are implanted into the mother-to-be?

a.	PID	c.	IVF
b.	PGD	d.	“Microsort”

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-3 Conception: Against All Odds

OBJ: 2-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The three prenatal stages, in order, are:

a.	germinal, fetal, embryonic.	c.	germinal, embryonic, fetal.
b.	meiotic, embryonic, fetal.	d.	embryonic, fetal, meiotic.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During the _____ stage of prenatal development, conception occurs, the zygote divides, and then implantation in the uterine wall occurs.

a.	fetal	c.	mitotic
b.	embryonic	d.	germinal

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

An ________ is to the formation of the digestive and respiratory systems as the ________ is to the formation of the excretory, reproductive, and circulatory systems.

a.	endoderm; mesoderm	c.	ectoderm; endoderm
b.	mesoderm; ectoderm	d.	mesoderm; endoderm

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

The _____ is a fluid-filled ball of cells that develops during the germinal stage of pregnancy.

a.	germin	c.	fetus
b.	blastocyst	d.	umbilicus

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Unfortunately, miscarriage occurs in approximately one-________ of all pregnancies, and most occur within the first ________ of the pregnancy.

a.	fifth; 1 month	c.	quarter; 2 months
b.	third; 3 months	d.	half; 4 months

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During the _____ stage of prenatal development, the major organ systems begin to differentiate.

a.	germinal	c.	fetal
b.	embryonic	d.	blastocystic

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The neural tube becomes the _____ during the embryonic stage of prenatal development.

a.	central nervous system	c.	muscular system
b.	digestive system	d.	arm buds and leg buds

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Sexual differentiation occurs:

a.	during the germinal period.
b.	as a result of the presence or absence of an X chromosome.
c.	because of the presence of secondary sex characteristics.
d.	as a result of the presence or absence of a Y chromosome.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

The developing fetus is contained within the ________ sac.

a.	amniotic	c.	umbilical
b.	maternal	d.	placental

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The placenta:

a.	develops from only the mother’s tissue.
b.	acts as a filter that permits oxygen and nutrients to reach the embryo from the mother.
c.	is an impermeable barrier that protects the developing fetus from all toxins.
d.	is reabsorbed by the mother’s body after childbirth is complete.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During the _____ stage, the developing organism gains the most weight and length.

a.	embryonic	c.	diaphragmatic
b.	fetal	d.	germinal

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Research on fetuses during the third trimester has shown:

a.	fetuses are unresponsive to outside stimuli.
b.	fetuses respond to changes in loudness but not differences in pitch.
c.	fetuses can learn to recognize the sounds of books being read to them.
d.	fetuses respond to visual, but not auditory stimuli.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true regarding nutrition during pregnancy?

a.	Pregnant women can eat and drink whatever they want, since their fetuses are not affected by what the pregnant woman consumes and the placenta protects the child from any ingested toxins.
b.	Fetal overnutrition is more of a problem than fetal malnutrition.
c.	The effects of fetal malnutrition cannot be overcome after birth.
d.	Supplementing the diets of pregnant women with calories and protein has shown to have modest positive effects on motor development of infants.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What is the most accurate information regarding how much weight women gain during pregnancy?

a.	All women should gain 10 pounds or fewer during pregnancy.
b.	The average weight gain during pregnancy is 25 to 35 pounds, but this can vary for different women based on their body size before getting pregnant.
c.	Women should gain the most during their first trimester of pregnancy.
d.	All of the weight gain should be in the baby, not in the mother’s body.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Teratogens:

a.	are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.
b.	are most damaging during the fetal period of development.
c.	are only those substances the mother’s body produces.
d.	harm the fetus only when taken in extremely large doses.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Routine blood tests early in a pregnancy can detect the _______ bacterium, which is a teratogen that can cause a miscarriage or stillbirth.

a.	gonorrhea	c.	syphilis
b.	chlamydia	d.	herpes

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The human immunodeficiency virus can be transmitted in several ways. Which of the following is not one of them?

a.	sexual relations	c.	a dirty toilet seat
b.	blood transfusions	d.	breast feeding

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Rubella, or German measles:

a.	only causes a mild rash in newborns.
b.	causes deafness, mental retardation, heart disease, and eye problems.
c.	should be vaccinated against during pregnancy.
d.	is never seen in American children anymore.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Dana is pregnant with her first child, and she has been diagnosed with toxemia. This condition, which is also called ________, is responsible for 15 to 20% of pregnancy-related maternal deaths.

a.	maternal hypercholesterolemia	c.	preeclampsia
b.	Bahcet’s disease	d.	gestational diabetes

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Application

Rh incompatibility:

a.	is usually most severe during a woman’s first pregnancy.
b.	is an untreatable condition.
c.	is a problem for about 90% of American couples.
d.	causes a mother’s body to produce antibodies that attack the fetus or newborn and cause brain damage or death.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Commonly used medications:

a.	never harm a developing fetus.
b.	should be taken after consultation with one’s doctor.
c.	can never be taken during pregnancy.
d.	are not toxic to a fetus; only illicit drugs are.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

________ was/were a drug used to treat insomnia and nausea and caused major birth defects, including missing or stunted limbs.

a.	Antibiotics	c.	Thalidomide
b.	Hormones	d.	DES

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following hormones can lead to an alteration of the genitals of a female baby when taken by a pregnant woman?

a.	DES	c.	Progestin
b.	Melatonin	d.	Adrenal androgen

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Alcohol consumption during pregnancy:

a.	should be encouraged, since it relaxes the mother.
b.	may lead to cognitive deficits and physical malformations.
c.	is safe as long as there are fewer than two drinks consumed per day.
d.	is safe after the end of the second trimester.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Research on the effects of caffeine consumption during pregnancy is:

a.	unethical to conduct.
b.	never done, since few women consume caffeine while pregnant.
c.	likely to prove that it has the same effect as cocaine on the developing fetus.
d.	inconsistent in terms of its effects.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Cigarette smoking during pregnancy:

a.	has no long-term adverse effects.
b.	is not toxic to the developing fetus since the placenta protects it from harm.
c.	is associated with low-birth weight and increased risk of stillbirth and infant mortality.
d.	is only a problem if the woman smokes; secondhand smoke holds no risk for the developing fetus.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Environmental hazards:

a.	are only a problem if the pregnant woman was exposed during the embryonic period of development.
b.	include lead, mercury, PCBs, zinc, and radiation.
c.	can lead to mental retardation, but rarely cause physical deformations.
d.	include ultrasound and x-rays.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How is parents’ age related to successful childbearing?

a.	Parents’ age is unrelated to childbearing success.
b.	The optimal time for childbearing is during one’s teens.
c.	Women in their 20s are at greater risk for miscarriage and inadequate prenatal care compared with teen and older mothers.
d.	There may be an optimal time for childbearing for both mothers and fathers.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Marvin is a 53-year old man, and his wife is pregnant with their first child. Statistically, Marvin’s age would be associated with a ___ in 10,000 chance that his child will have an autism spectrum disorder.

a.	6	c.	32
b.	9	d.	52

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 2-4 Prenatal Development

OBJ: 2-4 MSC: TYPE: Application

MATCHING

Match the following:

a.	An example of a sex-linked genetic abnormality that is not chromosomal in nature	k.	The union of an ovum and a sperm cell
b.	Both alleles for a trait are the same	l.	A primary female hormone
c.	Cell division that results in identical cells	m.	A condition associated with an extra of the 21^st pair of chromosomes
d.	The genetic material received from parents	n.	How genetic material manifests itself in characteristics
e.	An illness caused by a recessive gene	o.	Twins that are produced from two fertilized ova
f.	A trait that is determined by a single gene	p.	A condition caused by XXY sex chromosomal pattern
g.	The primary male hormone	q.	A characteristic that is determined by one’s father
h.	The chromosomal pattern for a male	r.	When both alleles for a trait differ
i.	Twins that are produced from a single fertilized ovum	s.	A condition caused by a dominant gene
j.	Cell division that results in non-identical cells	t.	The chromosomal pattern for a female

Monozygotic

Sickle-cell anemia

Meiosis

Phenotype

Homozygous

Hemophilia

Down syndrome

Huntington’s disease

Blood type

Dizygotic

Mitosis

Genotype

Heterozygous

Testosterone

Sex of a child

Estrogen

Conception

Klinefelter syndrome

ANS: H

ANS: I

ANS: E

ANS: J

ANS: N

ANS: B

ANS: A

ANS: M

ANS: S

ANS: F

ANS: O

ANS: C

ANS: D

ANS: R

ANS: G

ANS: Q

ANS: T

ANS: L

ANS: K

ANS: P

COMPLETION

The branch of biology that studies heredity is called ________.

ANS: genetics

________ is the process of duplicating identical cells.

ANS: Mitosis

________ produces ova (‘egg’) and sperm cells.

ANS: Meiosis

Each member of a pair of genes is termed a(n) ________.

ANS: allele

Diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and peptic ulcers are ________ problems, which means they reflect both a genetic predisposition and environmental contributors.

ANS: multifactorial

Approximately 1 girl in 2,500 has a single X chromosome and as a result develops ________ syndrome.

ANS: Turner

Some of the physical problems caused by ________ include painful and swollen joints, jaundice, and potentially fatal conditions such as pneumonia, stroke, and heart and kidney failure.

ANS: sickle-cell anemia

Amniocentesis is usually performed between ________ weeks after conception.

ANS: 14-16

The ________ assay is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

ANS: alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

________ is the union of an egg cell and a sperm cell.

ANS: Conception

The sperm are injected into the woman’s uterus at the time of ovulation in the process of artificial ________.

ANS: insemination

During the ________ stage of prenatal development, the dividing cell mass takes the form of a fluid-filled ball of cells called a blastocyst.

ANS: germinal

Development follows ________ (Latin for “head to tail”) and ________ (Latin for “near to far”) trends.

ANS: cephalocaudal, proximodistal

The ________ is a mass of tissue that permits the embryo (and, later on, the fetus) to exchange nutrients and wastes with the mother.

ANS: placenta

Maternal ________ has been linked to low birth weight, prematurity, retardation of brain development, cognitive deficiencies, behavioral problems, and even cardiovascular disease.

ANS: malnutrition

________ are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.

ANS: Teratogens

Exposure to particular teratogens is most harmful during ________ periods that correspond to the times when organs are developing.

ANS: critical periods

Women who are infected with ________ during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy stand at least a 20% chance of bearing children with birth defects such as deafness, mental retardation, heart disease, or eye problems, including blindness.

ANS: rubella (or the German measles)

________ is a life-threatening disease characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

ANS: Toxemia (or preeclampsia)

________ was taken by women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriage, but it was shown to cause cervical and testicular cancer in some offspring.

ANS: DES

The babies of women who regularly used ________ show increased tremors and startling, suggesting immature development of the nervous system.

ANS: marijuana

Infants whose mothers abused ________ during pregnancy are often excitable and irritable, or lethargic.

ANS: cocaine

Some children of heavy drinkers develop ________ syndrome.

ANS: fetal alcohol

Oxygen deprivation associated with maternal ________ is connected with impaired motor development, academic delays, learning disabilities, mental retardation, and hyperactivity.

ANS: cigarette smoking (instructors may choose to accept “tobacco use”)

Women’s fertility declines gradually until the ________, after which it declines more rapidly.

ANS: mid-30s

SHORT ANSWER

A friend of yours is pregnant. She has read about the potential problems that could occur with a pregnancy. Based on this chapter, what three pieces of advice would you offer to ease this person’s concerns for her unborn child?

ANS: The chances of problems during pregnancy are enhanced by external factors such as toxins (alcohol, smoking) and maternal characteristics (such as genetics and age at conception). Some of these things can be minimized and/or avoided. If the person is really worried, she may want to consider genetic counseling to see if there are serious disorders she might want to be aware of. Additionally, however, it should be acknowledged that genetic screening procedures do bring some element of risk to the pregnancy. The best thing the mother can do is to make the fetal environment as healthy as possible. She can exercise, take prenatal vitamins, eat a balanced diet, and refrain from smoking or ingesting alcohol and other drugs. She should also have regular medical check-ups so that the progress of her pregnancy can be monitored by a physician. Lastly, her overall chances of delivering a healthy child are significantly higher than her chances of having a child with a disease or a disorder.

Briefly describe the difference(s) between cell division as the result of “meiosis” and cell division as the result of “mitosis.”

ANS: Meiosis is also referred to as “reduction division.” This means that the 46 chromosomes within the cell nucleus line up into 23 pairs. These 23 pairs then split and one member from each pair goes to each newly formed cell. Because of this, the newly formed cells have half the genetic material contained in the original cell. In this sense, the cells are not identical but share 50 percent genetic similarity. With mitosis, the identical genetic code is carried into each newly formed cell in the body. In other words, these cells, when they divide, are identical to the cells that divided to form them. Cloning results from mitosis. Because the newly formed cells are “replications” of the preceding cell, there is no genetic variability.

Briefly describe the difference(s) between “recessive” and “dominant” genes.

ANS: Some genes are “dominant” and others are “recessive.” Dominant genes are more likely to be expressed than recessive genes. Eye color is a good example. With eye color, brown eyes are dominant and blue eyes are recessive. If one parent carries the gene for brown eyes only and the other for blue eyes only, the offspring would have brown eyes (that color would dominate). If, however, both parents carry recessive genes for blue eyes, those can combine and blue eyes will be expressed. In a sense, two recessive genes can overcome the dominance of a single gene. If a person carries both a dominant and recessive gene for a given trait, they would be referred to as a carrier of the recessive gene. It would not be expressed in their phenotype, but could be passed along to the person’s offspring.

What is “amniocentesis?” When is it likely to be performed and what can be determined by doing so?

ANS: Amniocentesis is a procedure that is sometimes used to detect genetic abnormalities in unborn children. The procedure involves withdrawing fluid from the amniotic sac that contains the fetus. Fetal cells that are contained in the fluid can then be examined for genetic abnormalities. This procedure is more likely to be done in mothers over the age of 35 because of increased risk for disorders such as Down syndrome. While it can also be used to determine the sex of the baby, the use of amniocentesis for this purpose is no longer practiced because it does carry about a 1% risk of causing a miscarriage.

A friend has asked you to describe the difference between “genotype” and “phenotype.” Based upon the material in Chapter Two of the textbook, how would you describe the difference?

ANS: Genotype refers to the genetic material that is received from one’s parents. Characteristics such as blood type and eye color, for example, are determined by our genotype. Genotype determines a range in which we might develop. It might, for example, determine how intelligent we could become. But genotype alone does not determine who or what we become. Our phenotype refers to how our characteristics are expressed. Someone might, for example, have the potential to grow quite tall. But the environment and other forces, such as nutrition, may influence how much of that genotype potential for height is realized. Phenotypes, then, are the product of both genetic and environmental influences.

What are some of the major fertility problems for males and females? What are possible causes of these problems?

ANS: For males, the primary fertility problems include low sperm count, deformed and low sperm motility and chronic diseases such as diabetes. For females, the primary fertility problems are irregular ovulation, declining hormones levels, endometriosis, and obstructions or malfunctions of the reproductive tract. The problems have genetic and environmental causes, such as overheating and pressure on the testes, aging, drug use, and bacterial or viral infections.

Describe two examples of recessive genetic disorders.

ANS: There are several answers that can satisfy this question. Two such disorders are as follow: Sickle-cell anemia is a recessive disorder, since both parents must contribute a recessive allele for the disorder in order for the offspring to display the problem. In this disorder, the red blood cells become sickle-shaped which allows less oxygen to be carried in the body. This may impair cognitive abilities. Tay-Sachs disease is another recessive disorder, again, since both parents must contribute a recessive allele for the disease. It causes the central nervous system to degenerate with a loss in sensory abilities, mental ability, and then death by around age 5.

How does studying monozygotic and dizygotic twins help one understand the genetic basis for a trait or behavior?

ANS: Monozygotic twins are identical in their genetic endowment, whereas dizygotic twins share as much of their genetics as non-twin siblings do. This difference allows researchers to tease apart the relative contributions of genetics and environment for a variety of different traits and behaviors, such as temperament, intelligence, personality, and so forth. When monozygotic twins have very different characteristics, there is a greater likelihood that genetics are not involved or at least are less involved in the development process. It is not always possible to determine whether something is genetically determined, however, since monozygotic twins often are treated in very similar ways since they appear to be so similar.

Describe two different methods of helping infertile couples.

ANS: In vitro fertilization involves extracting ripened ova from a woman and introducing them to a man’s sperm in a laboratory dish. Following fertilization, the fertilized ovum is then injected into the woman’s uterus. In some cases, the ova are actually from a donor, if the woman is unable to release her own viable eggs. Surrogate mothers are also used by some infertile couples. The surrogate mother may either use her own ova or those of another woman and the sperm of the biological father or another donor and then carry the resulting baby to term. Surrogate mothers are often compensated for their time and effort. Adoption, while not a direct intervention to cause a pregnancy, is a way of helping couples who cannot conceive their own child become a family while providing important opportunities for children who need parents.

What is a teratogen? Describe two teratogens and the effects they have on the developing organism.

ANS: A teratogen is any agent that can cause a birth defect. It may be an environmental factor, a maternal illness, or a drug or substance. There are many teratogens that can be cited for this answer. Two include thalidomide and alcohol. Thalidomide was a drug used to control insomnia and nausea during the 1960s for pregnant women. It led to the birth of thousands of babies with severe limb malformations. Alcohol use during pregnancy may cause facial and other abnormalities as well as mental retardation, hyperactivity, and other cognitive deficits.

Chapter 4—Infancy: Physical Development

MULTIPLE CHOICE

All of the following are sequences in physical development except:

a.	integration	c.	differentiation
b.	cephalocaudal	d.	proximodistal

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How does the brain regulate development of the infant’s body?

a.	by sending electrical signals to the muscles and bones
b.	through a predetermined sequence that is initiated at birth
c.	through the secretion of hormones
d.	through regulation of the somatic nervous system

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which sequence of development means “from head to tail?”

a.	dorsolinear	c.	centrosuperior
b.	proximodistal	d.	cephalocaudal

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which sequence of development means “from the center outward?”

a.	proximodistal	c.	cephalocaudal
b.	dorsolinear	d.	centrosuperior

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following can infants usually do or control first?

a.	they can hold objects
b.	they can hold up their heads
c.	they can make coordinated movements with their feet
d.	they can control their fingers

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The tendency of behavior to become more specific and distinct is called:

a.	integration	c.	globalization
b.	conceptualization	d.	differentiation

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

A child’s finger is hurt. He cries and withdraws the finger, but makes no other move. This is an example of:

a.	cephalocaudal development	c.	proximodistal development
b.	differentiation in development	d.	general distress syndrome

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur:

a.	during prenatal development
b.	during the first year of life
c.	it depends upon whether the child was born prematurely
d.	it depends upon postnatal nutrition levels

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants grow:

a.	only about 5-10% of the time	c.	about 6 months out of the first year
b.	constantly during the first year	d.	for about 2 weeks out of every month

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Boys will reach about half of their adult height by:

a.	5 years of age	c.	3 years of age
b.	4 years of age	d.	2 years of age

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true about infant growth?

a.	height differences in infants tend to disappear completely by toddlerhood, then re-emerge during puberty
b.	shorter than average infants tend to speed up in growth
c.	taller than average infants continue to speed up in growth
d.	shorter than average infants slow down in speed of growth

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Can children “grow overnight?”

a.	no, it is not possible
b.	yes, but only during the teen years
c.	yes, but only fractions of an inch at a time
d.	yes, they can grow as much as a full inch in one 24-hour period

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true of the normal growth curves of a child’s height and weight over the first two years of life?

a.	The curves of height and weight development are very similar and both resemble an arc
b.	The curve for height is linear, while the curve for weight is more of an arc.
c.	The curve for weight is linear, while the curve for height is more of an arc
d.	The curves of height and weight development are very similar and both resemble a straight line

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true about the relationship between infant and adult heights?

a.	there is no relationship between height as an infant and height as an adult
b.	there is an almost perfect relationship between height as an infant and height as an adult
c.	long infants always grow up to be tall adults
d.	tall infants tend to wind up taller than short infants in adulthood, but not by as much as you might expect given the differences in height during infancy

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Infants can grow:

a.	as much as .5 centimeters in one month	c.	as much as 2.5 centimeters in one month
b.	as much as 2.5 centimeters in one day	d.	as much as .5 centimeters in one day

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Among neonates, the arms:

a.	are longer than the legs
b.	are shorter than the legs
c.	are about equal in length to the legs
d.	develop more slowly than the legs after the first birthday due to the cephalocaudal trend

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Kiley, a 5-month-old infant, refuses to eat and has not gained any weight in 2 months. Kiley:

a.	is a typical infant	c.	may have a protein deficiency
b.	may have colic	d.	may suffer from failure to thrive

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

An adult’s legs are typically ____ as long as their head, while their arms are typically ____ as long as their head.

a.	3; 4	c.	4; 3
b.	4; 2	d.	5; 4

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Failure to thrive:

a.	is an organic illness
b.	can be created by a combination of organic and non-organic causes
c.	is a non-organic problem
d.	is caused by prenatal problems

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Matthew is 20 months old and has been diagnosed as having nonorganic failure to thrive (NOFTT). The cause of this is thought to be:

a.	an underlying health problem	c.	trouble accessing food
b.	failure to make use of adequate nutrition	d.	a psychological and/or social cause

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which of the following is a central feature of failure to thrive?

a.	irritability	c.	feeding problems
b.	poor REM sleep	d.	excessive eye contact with adults

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Samantha has been treated for failure to thrive and is now returning to her normal growth rate. What does this represent?

a.	canalization	c.	differentiation
b.	proximodistal development	d.	phenalization

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Application

The tendency to return to one’s predetermined growth after undergoing an environmentally induced change is referred to as:

a.	phenalization	c.	canalization
b.	differentiation	d.	cephelocaudation

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Compared to children in other countries, how is the nutrition of children in the United States?

a.	worse than in many other countries
b.	better than in many countries, with few children experiencing poor nutrition.
c.	better than in many other countries, although poor children in the U.S. tend to have poor nutrition.
d.	the U.S. is on an equal basis with most other countries

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

At about what age can an infant begin ingesting solid foods?

a.	by about 4 to 6 months of age
b.	as early as 2 weeks, if they are really hungry
c.	not until about 1 year of age
d.	it varies significantly from child to child

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, how long should children be breastfed?

a.	only for the first two weeks
b.	for the first 6 months
c.	it does not matter, as formulas are just as nutritious
d.	for at least one year

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How should new foods be introduced to the infant?

a.	one at a time to assess for allergies or preferences
b.	several foods at once so the child has a variety of new tastes from which to choose
c.	meat should be introduced before vegetables
d.	strained meat should never be introduced before age 2

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Concerning an infant’s diet:

a.	infants will have a preference for those foods they need the most
b.	provide as much fiber as possible early on
c.	sugar and salt do not need to be minimized as the child’s body is deficient in these
d.	be sure to not restrict infant fat and cholesterol intake too much

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

When thinking of the infant diet, remember:

a.	infants need iron.
b.	infants need more sugar than adults
c.	to restrict fat intake significantly
d.	infants do not have the same nutritional needs as adults and older children.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

In terms of iron:

a.	infants need significantly less iron, pound for pound, than adults
b.	infants do not need iron at all
c.	infants need significantly more iron, pound for pound, than adults
d.	iron needs depend upon the gender of the infant, just like it does in adults

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What is the ratio of women in the United States who breastfeed their children, at least for a while?

a.	1 in 5	c.	3 in 10
b.	1 in 10	d.	7 in 10

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Compared to breast milk, formulas:

a.	are actually higher in nutritive value
b.	are more easily digested
c.	do not offer the same immune system benefits
d.	are associated with fewer cases of childhood lymphoma than breast milk

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following is an advantage of breastfeeding?

a.	it causes infant diarrhea
b.	the nutritional content does not change with the infant’s changing needs
c.	HIV can be transmitted to the infant via breastfeeding
d.	it reduces the risk of ear infections, pneumonia, and bacterial meningitis

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Negatives to breastfeeding include:

a.	fear of pain
b.	undernourishment of some mothers, which results in fewer nutrients in breast milk
c.	the mother’s ability to bond with the child
d.	enhanced immune system benefits for the infant

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Benefits to the mother who breastfeeds include all but which of the following?:

a.	reduces risk of early breast and ovarian cancer.
b.	builds bone strength.
c.	shrinks the uterus after delivery.
d.	it leads to healthier teeth and gums

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true about the brain?

a.	the neonate’s brain is more than 3/4 of its eventual adult size.
b.	it contains more neurons than the rest of the body
c.	when born, the brain contains no neurons, as they develop due to experience
d.	at birth, it contains over 40 million neurons

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is not contained within a neuron?

a.	cell body	c.	a dendrite
b.	an axon	d.	a fermata

ANS: D DIF: moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

You use your phone to receive text messages. Which part of the neuron performs this function?

a.	dendrite	c.	axon
b.	soma	d.	synapse

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

You use your phone to transmit a message to another person. Which part of the neuron performs this function?

a.	axon	c.	dendrite
b.	soma	d.	synapse

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

The chemical messengers in the neuron are called?

a.	hormones	c.	neurotransmitters
b.	enzymes	d.	prolactins

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Neurons are tightly wrapped in a white, fatty substance. This substance is called:

a.	globulin	c.	profferin
b.	myelin	d.	alduin

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

____ is caused by the replacement of myelin with a hard fibrous tissue that disrupts neural communication.

a.	SIDS	c.	Failure to Thrive
b.	Multiple Sclerosis	d.	PKU

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What does myelin do?

a.	its exact function is unknown
b.	it prevents electrical messages from traveling down the axon
c.	it creates neurotransmitters
d.	it allows for electrical messages in the neuron to be conducted more efficiently

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

An individual develops mental retardation due to a disorder called PKU. What do we know about this?

a.	the individual has excessive myelination
b.	there is an interruption of normal myelin development in the individual’s brain
c.	the myelin travels into the soma and destroys the neuron
d.	the myelin covers the dendrites and stops the communication process

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

A baby has begun to crawl. This means:

a.	myelin will soon form to coat motor neurons
b.	a maturation process will be activated that will result in myelination of neurons by the end of the first year
c.	myelination of neurons has already begun
d.	myelin has nothing to do with this process

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

How big is the neonate’s brain?

a.	about half the size it will be in adulthood
b.	it depends greatly upon the size and shape of the infant’s head
c.	about one-third the size it will be in adulthood
d.	less than one pound

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The infant brain:

a.	grows slower than the rest of the body
b.	triples in weight by the child’s first birthday
c.	is fully developed at birth
d.	will not reach 70% of its adult weight until adolescence

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Marla’s brain cannot control her heartbeat and respiratory activities. Which part of her brain might be damaged?

a.	medulla	c.	pituitary
b.	cerebellum	d.	hypothalamus

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Application

The medulla is part of the:

a.	hindbrain reticular activating system	c.	brain stem
b.	forebrain	d.	midbrain

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which part of the brain allows for learning, thought, language, and memory?

a.	cerebellum	c.	amygdala
b.	medulla	d.	cerebrum

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

When does the first brain growth spurt occur?

a.	during the second and third weeks of life
b.	during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development
c.	about the first month after birth
d.	not until the end of the first year

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Myelination of motor pathways:

a.	increases the speed at which the infant can process cognitive information
b.	is unrelated to the infant’s motor skills
c.	results in finely coordinated motor movements
d.	allows neonates to show stereotyped reflexes

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

When does the second growth spurt of the brain occur?

a.	during the second and third weeks of life
b.	during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development
c.	between the 25th week of prenatal development and the end of the second year after birth
d.	there is no such thing as a second growth spurt of the brain

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The second growth spurt of the brain is due to:

a.	neuron development
b.	proliferation of dendrites and axons
c.	enlargement of the brain ventricles
d.	there is no such thing as a second brain growth spurt

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Research shows that myelination:

a.	continues to some degree into adolescence
b.	is complete by the time the child is born
c.	is enhanced by vitamin B intake
d.	enhances cognitive functioning, but not motor functioning

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The development of hearing in the fetus may be linked to:

a.	degree of external stimulation
b.	the development of the cerebellum
c.	myelination of the neurons involved in hearing
d.	proliferation of myelin cells in the parietal lobe of the cerebrum

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following is true regarding development of vision?

a.	Myelination of the visual cortex is completed before birth.
b.	Myelination of the visual cortex is not completed until adolescence.
c.	Myelination of the visual cortex begins shortly before birth and ends within 5-6 months after birth.
d.	Myelination is not needed for the visual cortex.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Rats placed in “enriched” environments:

a.	develop comparably to all other rats
b.	show significant development of the medulla
c.	develop heavier brains than those not in enriched environments
d.	show shrinkage of the visual cortex

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following is true about infant brains in comparison to adult brains?

a.	infant brains have more neural connections
b.	infant brains comprise a significantly smaller percentage of body size
c.	infant brains have connections that are not activated by experience
d.	infant brains have only about half the structures of adult brains

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

What is the implication of the phrase “brain adaptability is a double-edged sword?”

a.	it means that our brains are not good at adapting to changing environments
b.	it means that excessive stimulation can be as damaging as too little stimulation
c.	it means that our brains allow us to adjust to changing demands, but lack of stimulation can impair this ability
d.	it means that once we learn something, we cannot unlearn it

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Like physical development, motor development:

a.	does not follow the same patterns as cognitive development
b.	is much more predictable than cognitive development
c.	occurs independent of other factors such as environment or nutrition
d.	follows cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns, and differentiation

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Over which body part will infants first gain control?

a.	head	c.	legs
b.	arms	d.	fingers

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

In terms of head control, what can newborns do?

a.	they can lift their heads for short periods of time
b.	they can lift their heads after about the first week after birth
c.	they can move their heads side to side but nothing else
d.	if you lay them on their stomach, they can lift the head and torso for short periods of time

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Maggie is holding a toy clumsily, using only her fingers and palm. This is an example of:

a.	pincer grasp	c.	ulnar grasp
b.	palmar reflex	d.	reflexive grasping

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Application

Which of the following cannot be said about a 5-month-old infant grasping an object?

a.	she can be increasingly successful at grasping objects
b.	she may be able to grasp the object, but does not know how to let go of it
c.	she is probably using the ulnar grasp
d.	she is most likely using a pincer grasp

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Why is voluntary reaching and grasping not present at birth?

a.	because it requires visual-motor coordination
b.	infants can do voluntary reaching and grasping at birth
c.	because they cannot see the objects
d.	infants do not find the environment interesting enough to motivate the actions

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

At approximately what age do children start using their thumbs to aid them in grasping objects?

a.	4-6 months	c.	virtually at birth
b.	9-12 months	d.	2-3 months

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Use of the thumb to assist in picking up small objects is referred to as:

a.	the ulnar grasp	c.	the pincer grasp
b.	the palmar reflex	d.	the grasping reflex

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

In what order would an infant most likely display the following movement abilities?

a.	crawling, sitting up, creeping, and running
b.	sitting up, rolling over, crawling
c.	running, walking, crawling, and creeping
d.	rolling over, sitting up, crawling, and creeping

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Ben is 7 months old. Which of the following is he probably not yet able to do?

a.	roll over	c.	sit up unassisted
b.	sit up assisted	d.	crawl

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Application

When it comes to locomotor development:

a.	there is a great deal of consistency in the order of skill development
b.	there is a great deal of consistency in the age at which these skills are acquired
c.	there are significant gender differences in the age at which these skills are demonstrated
d.	different children tend to accomplish the major milestones in very different sequences

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

By what age can infants usually sit up without assistance?

a.	by about 3 months
b.	not until 9-10 months
c.	as soon as they are old enough to lift their heads and torsos off the ground
d.	usually around 7 months

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Why do infants who first start to walk move about in a bowlegged fashion?

a.	to support the heavy weight of the head and torso
b.	because the legs are not fully developed enough to allow regular walking
c.	because the structures of the brain that control locomotion have not developed in such a way that allows the child to use a “straight legged” orientation
d.	because of the principle of proximodistal development

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following accurately describes what a toddler will do when confronted with a steep slope while walking?

a.	they will adamantly refuse to go down it
b.	they will usually stop and crawl or slide down the slope
c.	they cannot tell the difference and will try to walk down it, usually falling down
d.	they cannot go down any slopes until approximately age 2

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Application

When it comes to motor development:

a.	it is simply a process of unfolding genetic tendencies (maturation)
b.	it depends solely upon experience and the environment
c.	it is dependent upon a combination of maturation and experience
d.	the sequence of motor stages differs markedly between boys and girls

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Hopi children who spend their first year strapped to a cradle board:

a.	are usually at least one year behind in learning to walk
b.	walk sooner than children from other cultures
c.	may never learn to walk
d.	learn to walk at about the same time as children from other cultures

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The “reaction range” is:

a.	the “limits” for the expression of an inherited trait.
b.	how a child will react to different visual and motor stimuli.
c.	the outcome of development based on one’s environment.
d.	the upper limit of development when one has a great deal of environmental stimulation.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Specific training of infant motor skills:

a.	leads to superior motor performance throughout life
b.	helps enhance the reaction range
c.	can actually slow down motor development in the long run
d.	does not seem to be useful before a child is ready to develop a certain skill

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following is the most accurate statement with regard to Olympic athletes?

a.	even Olympic athletes represent a combination of “good genes” and the right environment
b.	Olympic athletes are born, not made
c.	environment makes all the difference in who will and who will not become an Olympian
d.	genetics are more likely to determine male accomplishments than female accomplishments

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

The greatest gains in visual acuity occur:

a.	from 9-12 months of age	c.	from birth to 6 months of age
b.	from 1-2 months of age	d.	not until late childhood

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Newborns:

a.	have better peripheral vision than adults
b.	are extremely farsighted
c.	have poor peripheral vision
d.	are unable to see in black and white because the rods of the retina are not developed at birth

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How can we assess infant visual preferences?

a.	it is not possible to assess preferences, as they do not have enough experience to have developed preferences
b.	by measuring how long infants look at particular objects
c.	by assessing the degree of peripheral vision, which approximates visual preference
d.	none of these is accurate about infant visual preference

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Infants seem to have a visual preference for:

a.	the human face	c.	simple outlines
b.	pastel colors	d.	small dot patterns

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

How soon can an infant discriminate its mother’s face from a stranger’s face?

a.	at birth
b.	within one month of birth
c.	after about 8 hours of exposure spread over 4 days
d.	within 2 weeks

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

When infants “look” at something:

a.	they actually bounce from feature to feature, rather than staring
b.	they focus in on one feature and ignore all other features
c.	they are prewired to pay attention to subtle features
d.	they look at familiar objects for more time than novel objects

ANS: A DIF: Factual REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

When looking at human faces, infants under two months of age prefer to look at:

a.	the edges, such as the chin	c.	the mouth
b.	the eyes	d.	the entire face

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Camille is crawling and she stops before crawling off of a set of 3 steep steps. This suggests:

a.	that infants are prewired to avoid danger
b.	that crawling infants perceive depth
c.	that infants are afraid of changes in their environments
d.	that differences in thresholds are surprising to infants

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Application

In their classic study of depth perception, Gibson and Walk (1960) found that:

a.	one-month olds would not cross the visual cliff
b.	boys crossed the visual cliff earlier than girls
c.	infants would cross the cliff if their mothers encouraged them to do so
d.	8 out of 10 crawling infants would not cross onto the visual cliff

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

If an infant perceives a door as the same shape whether it is closed or ajar, this represents:

a.	size parallax	c.	perceptual constancy
b.	intellectual asymmetry	d.	retinal parity

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

According to a research study by Thomas Bower (1974), at what age do infants show the ability of size constancy?

a.	2 ½ -3 months	c.	7-9 months
b.	5-6 months	d.	at approximately 12 months

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

An example of shape constancy is:

a.	recognizing that a door is a rectangle whether it be closed or ajar
b.	perceiving a ruler to be 12 inches long even when viewed from 6 feet away
c.	seeing someone in your peripheral vision
d.	scanning a human face from the edges inward

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Application

If stimuli A and B are the same object, but are seen from different angles, what does it mean if the infant’s heart rate and pattern of gazing do not change?

a.	the infant does not recognize shape A, as it is a novel object
b.	the infant does not recognize shape B, as it is a novel object
c.	the infant recognizes shape A and B to be the same
d.	the infant perceives the objects to actually be identical, but thinks that their shapes and sizes are changes.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Application

By what age do infants show similar accuracy to adults in sound localization?

a.	6 months	c.	18 months
b.	12 months	d.	24 months

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

When using the “habituation” method:

a.	infants demonstrate a fear of drops or depth-related cues
b.	infants show recognition by no longer responding to something they have seen or heard before
c.	infants show that they can distinguish parental voices by 4 weeks of age
d.	infants show visual preferences by attending to objects they prefer longer

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Research on language development shows that:

a.	infants are born prewired to learn their native language
b.	children are born able to speak any language and this ability never goes away
c.	children are born ready to learn any language, but quickly adapt to their native language
d.	children cannot discriminate the sounds of any language until about 2 years of age

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Research on infants’ coordination of senses has shown:

a.	infants have no ability to coordinate senses until they are one year of age.
b.	infants can coordinate sensory information at birth.
c.	infants can coordinate sensory information as early as one month of age.
d.	infants can coordinate visual and auditory information early on, but not visual and tactile information.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Which of the following provides evidence that nature, as opposed to nurture, plays an important role in infant perceptual development?

a.	infants are born with a tendency to track moving objects and to scan the horizon
b.	failure to receive adequate sensory stimulation can result in sensory deficits
c.	infants who have one eye patched for an extensive period of time may develop impaired visual acuity
d.	infants who were strapped to a cradle board for the first year of life never caught up to their peers in their motor skills

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following does NOT support the notion that perception becomes more active through childhood?

a.	Infants scan their environments more purposefully with age.
b.	Infants search their environments more systematically with age.
c.	Infants are better able to ignore irrelevant information as they get older.
d.	Attention becomes more general with age, with children paying attention to more stimuli as they get older.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following suggests that nature is crucial in perceptual development?

a.	Neonates are born with a variety of sensory preferences.
b.	Neonates are unable to visually accommodate.
c.	Four-month-olds are able to distinguish between their mothers’ and father’s voices.
d.	Kittens whose eyes are patched develop few cells in their visual cortexes.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

Which of the following supports the notion that nurture is important in perceptual development?

a.	Neonates recognize the differences among many language sounds.
b.	Neonates prefer the taste of sweet over bitter.
c.	Neonates prefer their mothers’ underarm odors to other women’s odors.
d.	Kittens whose eyes are patched develop few cells in their visual cortexes.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

MATCHING

Match the following:

a.	May be contributed to by a child refusing to eat	k.	When an infant grabs using the thumb
b.	When an infant grabs without using the thumb	l.	Refers to a developmental pattern that moves from top to bottom
c.	The encouraging of mothers to breast feed for at least one year	m.	Age at which a child pays most visual attention to edges of objects
d.	The part of the neuron that receives information	n.	When a child perceive objects as same even from an angle
e.	Age at which a child systematically scans within boundaries of objects	o.	Returning to one’s genetically determined pattern of growth after an interruption
f.	Refers to a developmental pattern that moves from the center to the periphery	p.	Age at which myelination of nerves to muscles occurs
g.	A white fatty substance that coats neurons	q.	A brain structure that facilitates motor control
h.	A brain structure that controls heartbeat and breathing	r.	When a child perceives objects as the same even from a distance
i.	A brain structure that is responsible for learning, thinking, memory, and language.	s.	A practice associated with lower risk of child lymphoma
j.	A structure that sends messages away from the neuron’s cell body	t.	Chemical messengers released from neurons

Cephalocaudal

Axon

Cerebellum

Breastfeeding

Size constancy

Two years of age

One month olds

Proximodistal

Ulnar grasp

Dendrites

Failure to Thrive

Myelin sheath

Neurotransmitters

Two month olds

Medulla

Cerebrum

Shape constancy

Pincer grasp

Medical gold standard

Canalization

ANS: L

ANS: J

ANS: Q

ANS: S

ANS: R

ANS: P

ANS: M

ANS: F

ANS: B

ANS: D

ANS: A

ANS: G

ANS: T

ANS: E

ANS: H

ANS: I

ANS: N

ANS: K

ANS: C

ANS: O

TRUE/FALSE

Cephalocaudal development goes from the feet to the head.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

During the prenatal period, the head is much larger than other parts of the body.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants gain control over their trunks and their shoulders before they can control their arms, hands, and fingers.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during the first year of life.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Over 20% of newborns in the United States show failure to thrive.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Canalization is a genetic tendency to experience physical problems.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

It is important to restrict infants’ intake of fat and cholesterol just as much as it is for adults.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants need more iron, pound for pound, than adults in their diet.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Breast milk may reduce the child’s risk of certain types of cancer.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-1 Physical Growth and Development

OBJ: 4-1 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Dendrites send information on to connecting neurons.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Myelin allows electrical messages to be conducted more efficiently.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The cerebellum is the part of the brain that allows for balance and motor control.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The medulla is responsible for higher level thinking and memory.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The first major growth spurt of the brain occurs during the fourth and fifth months after birth.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Myelination of the neurons involved in hearing begins about the sixth month of pregnancy.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants have more connections among neurons than adults do

ANS: T DIF: Difficult REF: 4-2 Development of the Brain and Nervous System

OBJ: 4-2 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Unlike physical development, motor development does not follow cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

The pincer grasp develops before the ulnar grasp in infants.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-3 Motor Development

OBJ: 4-3 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants prefer to look at human faces over other visual arrays.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

One-month-old infants tend to pay most attention to the “edges” of human faces.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Crawling infants tend to crawl over the “visual cliff” when given the opportunity.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Young infants are capable of perceiving most of the speech sounds present in the world’s languages

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Infants as young as one month of age can coordinate information from more than one sense.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Children become more passive in response to their environments as they age.

ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

Children tend to become more active in their responses to the sensory information as they age.

ANS: T DIF: Moderate REF: 4-4 Sensory and Perceptual Development

OBJ: 4-4 MSC: TYPE: Factual

COMPLETION

The ________ principle is demonstrated by the fact that the head is the largest part of the embryo.

ANS: cephalocaudal

The ________ principle relates to the fact that the brain and spinal cord develop before the infant can control its arms and legs.

ANS: proximodistal

As children mature, their physical reactions become less global and more specific, demonstrating the principle of ________.

ANS: differentiation

A syndrome called ________is a serious disorder that impairs growth in infancy and early childhood which may have organic and nonorganic causes.

ANS: failure to thrive

The tendency to return to one’s genetically determined pattern of growth is referred to as ________.

ANS: canalization

Breastfeeding for a minimum of ________ is considered the “medical gold standard”.

ANS: one year

One downside of breastfeeding is that ________ can be transmitted from mother to child this way.

ANS: HIV

________ receive incoming messages from other neurons while ________ send messages to other neurons.

ANS: Dendrites, axons

The ________ is the brain structure responsible for controlling the basic living functions, such as breathing and heartbeat.

ANS: medulla

The ________ grasp does not involve the thumb, while the ________ does.

ANS: ulnar, pincer

Most infants can remain in a standing position by holding on to something at the age of ________ months.

ANS: 8 to 9

In a classic experiment, Fantz (1961) found that infants looked longer at images of ________ than they do at bull’s-eyes, newsprint, or color disks.

ANS: human faces

Gibson and Walk (1960) designed a device called the ________ to study infants’ depth perception.

ANS: visual cliff

Perceptual ________ is the tendency to perceive an object to be the same, even though the sensations produced by the object may differ under various conditions.

ANS: constancy

Bower (1974) conditioned 2¹/₂– to 3-month-old infants to turn their heads to the left when shown a 12-inch cube from a distance of 3 feet. This showed their ability to detect ________ constancy.

ANS: size

In a classic study using the ________ method, one-month-old infants learned to activate a recording of “bah” by sucking on a nipple. After getting tired of the “bah” sound, the babies sucked harder when they heard a “pah” sound.

ANS: habituation

Infants as young as ________ have been shown to be able to recognize objects experienced with one sense as similar to objects experience with another sense.

ANS: one month

As infants develop, ________ action replaces ________ responses to stimulation

ANS: intentional, automatic

Infants are born with tendencies to track moving objects, to systematically scan the horizon, and to prefer certain kinds of stimuli. Each of these are evidence of the role of ________ in perceptual development.

ANS: nature

________ is a disorder where the myelin sheath is replaced by hard fibrous tissue and motor capabilities are diminished.

ANS: Multiple sclerosis

In the U.S., infants and young children from ________ are more likely to display signs of poor nutrition such as anemia or failure to thrive (FTT) syndrome than are other children.

ANS: poor families

Today, most American mothers—more than ________ percent—breast-feed their children for at least a while, but only about ________continue to breast-feed after 6 months

ANS: 70; 2 in 5

People are born with about ________ neurons, most of which are in the brain.

ANS: 100 billion

Most infants can roll over from back to stomach and from stomach to back by about the age of ________.

ANS: six months

Although the neonate shows stepping and swimming reflexes, these behaviors are controlled by more ________ parts of the brain.

ANS: primitive

SHORT ANSWER

When it comes to human development, what does the term “differentiation” mean?

ANS: In a technical sense, this term describes a tendency for behavior to become more specific and distinct as the child matures. For example, if a young infant gets a finger pinched in a toy, she may withdraw the hand, but also may flail around and cry in a general pattern of distress. As the child gets older, she may withdraw the hand and cry, but not show the overall pattern of distress. The infant appears to become increasingly able to isolate responses that are specific to what has occurred.

Briefly describe what the parts of a neuron do.

ANS: In a simple sense, there are three main parts to a neuron. The dendrites are branch-like fibers that are considered to be the “receivers” for the neuron. They will gather messages from other neurons and send that information to the cell body for processing. If a threshold is reached in the cell body, it will send that message down the axon for potential transfer to another neuron. The cell body is like the processing unit and the axon guides where the output goes. The axon contains neurotransmitters (chemical messengers) that may be deposited into the gap between neurons. The messengers may be received by dendrites of connecting neurons and the process continues. Another important structure is myelin. This is a fatty substance that wraps around neurons, insulating them and increasing the efficiency of the communication of messages.

Briefly describe the difference(s) between “cephalocaudal” and “proximodistal” patterns of development.

ANS: Cephalocaudal development essentially means “from head to tail.” In other words, human beings tend to develop from the top down. For example, the most highly developed part of the body at birth is the head and brain. This is important because the brain is involved in all aspects of development that occur after birth, and as such, it needs to be the most highly developed. As the infant gains strength, this pattern continues. She can lift her head and torso off the ground, for example, before she can exert much control over her arms and legs. Proximodistal development is a pattern that means “from the center out.” Infants can control their trunks or torsos before they can control their fingers and toes. It refers to the fact that a second pattern of development is indicated by the fact that development seems to be initiated at their core (torso) and moves sequentially away (to the extremities).

Discuss what is meant by “canalization” when it comes to human development.

ANS: Canalization refers to the tendency to return to one’s genetically determined pattern of growth. In other words, if something has happened that has interfered with the child’s growth, such as an illness or poor nutrition, the child will tend to “catch up” once that challenge has passed or been taken care of. Frequently, this means that a child who has shown a deficiency will demonstrate acceleration in development and will return to approximately the normal course of development for that individual. In some children who are diagnosed with failure to thrive, canalization will be seen when they overcome this condition and “catch up” to their normal growth and developmental markers.

What are the benefits and problems associated with breastfeeding?

ANS: Breastfeeding has many benefits both to the infant and the mother. First of all, breast milk is less like to upset an infant’s stomach than formula and provides adequate nutrition for at least the first six months of life. As the infant matures the composition of breast milk changes to help meet the infant’s changing needs. The antibodies in breast milk helps the infant ward off a variety of health problems, ranging from respiratory problems such as wheezing and pneumonia to tetanus, child pox, bacterial meningitis, and typhoid fever. It also has been shown to reduce the risk of childhood lymphoma and serious cases of diarrhea Infants who are nourished by breast milk are less likely to develop allergic responses and constipation and to develop obesity later in life.

For the mother who breastfeeds, there is a reduced risk of early onset breast cancer and ovarian cancer. Breastfeeding women also tend to have stronger bones than those who did not breastfeed, leading to reduced rates of hip fracture and osteoporosis. The uterus shrinks after childbirth with the help of breastfeeding.

Some of the problems associated with breastfeeding may include less involvement of the other parent in feeding of the infant, more difficulties in returning to work, a need for better nourishment of the breastfeeding mother, and transmission of certain hazards such as PCBs and the HIV/AIDS virus through breast milk. It also makes the mother far more responsible for the most important care (feeding) of a child. This can be overcome, however, if a nursing mother pumps and stores her breast milk, thus another partner to be involved in the feeding of the child.

What are the roles of myelination?

ANS: The development of the myelin sheath, which acts as an insulation for neurons, improves conduction of nerve impulses, making neural transmission more efficient. It is associated with increased voluntary control of motor behaviors and improvement of higher level mental processes. It is also involved in the development of perceptual skills as a child ages.

What evidence supports the notions that both nature and nurture have roles in motor development?

ANS: Nature has been shown to be involved since even when there is a lack of experience in motor activity, such as with Hopi infants who are strapped to boards for the first year of their lives who begin to walk around the same time as those who had experience with locomotion. Nurture has been shown to be important with the children in an Iranian orphanage with limited motor experience had significant retardation of their motor development.

How does infants’ scanning change with development?

ANS: Neonates tend to focus on the where of objects, focusing on the edges of objects and their visual complexity. As they get older, these infants tend to focus more on the what of objects, scanning more the interior of the objects and features of faces. These changes may also reflect a greater recognition and preference for certain stimuli. For example, as a child learns the face of a primary caregiver he/she may focus more on the central features of that face than the periphery/edges. All of these skills and changes develop simultaneously, in concert with each other.

How has the “visual cliff” been used to study depth perception in infants? What has the research on this shown?

ANS: The “visual cliff” is an apparatus that appears to include an edge that drop offs. Young infants placed on the apparent drop off indicate interest in what they are viewing with a decrease in their heart rates. Older infants, with experience in crawling, refuse to crawl over to the apparent drop off and show an increased heart rate, indicating a fear response to the drop off. Some 8 out of 10 infants who had begun to crawl in Gibson and Walk’s original experiment refused to venture out of what appeared to be an unsupported, and thus dangerous area of a surface.

How does infants’ perception of the human language change during the first year of life?

ANS: At birth, neonate are able to recognize the difference in sounds used in all human languages. They can be trained to respond differently to different types of sounds, as apparent in habituation studies where they suck harder when exposed to new language stimuli. As infants develop, they lose the ability to detect the sounds of languages they have not been exposed to. Infants also learn to ignore differences in small, meaningless sounds in their native language.

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HDEV 3rd Edition by Spencer A. Rathus – Test Bank

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