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Human Anatomy 6th Edition by Kenneth Saladin – Test Bank
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Chapter 2 Cytology—The Study of Cells
1) The modern cell theory is does not state which of the following?
- A) The cell is the smallest unit of life.
- B) All cells arise from other cells.
- C) All cells are enclosed in a cell wall.
- D) The cells of all species are fundamentally similar in that they all have DNA as the hereditary material.
- E) All functions of the body result from cellular activity.
Answer: C
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1a State some tenets of the cell theory.
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2) The study of cellular structure and function is called ________.
Answer: cytology
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1a State some tenets of the cell theory.
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3) Which microscope type would be most useful if a person wanted to see the detailed structure of organelles in a cell?
- A) Transmission electron microscope
- B) Scanning electron microscope
- C) Light microscope
- D) Fluorescence microscope
- E) Compound microscope
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1b Discuss how developments in microscopy have changed our view of cell structure.
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4) The transmission electron microscope (TEM) can magnify images up to how many times?
- A) 200x
- B) 1,200x
- C) 300,000x
- D) 600,000x
- E) 1,000,000x
Answer: D
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1b Discuss how developments in microscopy have changed our view of cell structure.
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5) Which microscope is best suited for determining the texture of a cell’s exterior surface?
- A) Scanning electron microscope
- B) Transmission electron microscope
- C) Light microscope
- D) Fluorescent microscope
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1b Discuss how developments in microscopy have changed our view of cell structure.
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6) Which of the following is a clear gel, with no visible structure of its own, in which the organelles are embedded?
- A) Nucleoplasm
- B) Cytoplasm
- C) Cytosol
- D) Ectoplasm
- E) Protoplasm
Answer: C
Section: 2.01
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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7) Select the two major components of the cell.
- A) Plasma membrane
- B) Cytoplasm
- C) Nucleolus
- D) DNA
Answer: A, B
Section: 2.01
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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8) The fluid outside of a cell is called ________.
- A) cytosol
- B) intracellular fluid
- C) extracellular fluid
- D) cytoplasm
- E) nucleoplasm
Answer: C
Section: 2.01
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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9) Which of the following is not one of the major components of a cell?
- A) Cytoplasm
- B) Nucleus
- C) Plasma membrane
- D) Interstitial fluid
Answer: D
Section: 2.01
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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10) Digestive juices in the lumen of the intestine move across which surface of the epithelial cells there?
- A) Apical surface
- B) Basal surface
- C) Laminar surface
- D) Intracellular surface
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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11) Mr. Miyata’s doctor is concerned that the potassium levels outside of his cells is rising. Which fluid is she monitoring?
- A) Extracellular fluid
- B) Intercellular fluid
- C) Intracellular fluid
- D) Extercellular fluid
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1c Outline the major structural components of a cell.
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12) Which term would you use to describe a cell that is thin, flat, and scaly, such as those found on the surface layer (epidermis) of the skin?
- A) Columnar
- B) Cuboidal
- C) Squamous
- D) Fusiform
- E) Stellate
Answer: C
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1d Identify cell shapes from their descriptive terms.
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13) Skeletal muscle cells are long, slender, and thread-like. Therefore, they would be considered ________ in shape.
- A) squamous
- B) discoid
- C) fibrous
- D) cuboidal
Answer: C
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1d Identify cell shapes from their descriptive terms.
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14) Cells that are thick in the middle and tapered toward the ends are called ________ cells.
- A) squamous
- B) stellate
- C) columnar
- D) spheroid
- E) fusiform
Answer: E
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1d Identify cell shapes from their descriptive terms.
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15) The flat-shaped cells found covering the skin are ________ in shape.
- A) cuboidal
- B) columnar
- C) cylindrical
- D) squamous
- E) spherical
Answer: D
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.1d Identify cell shapes from their descriptive terms.
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16) How does the relationship between surface area and volume impact how large a cell can be?
- A) Volume is proportional to the cube of the diameter of the cell, so if diameter increases, volume will increase much faster than surface area, limiting exchange of wastes and nutrients.
- B) Volume and surface area both increase the same amount if the diameter of the cell increases.
- C) Surface area increases proportionately more than volume as the diameter of the cell increases; therefore, exchange of wastes and nutrients is more efficient in a large cell.
- D) If the diameter of the cell doubles, the volume of the cell will increase by a factor of four.
- E) If the diameter of the cell doubles, the volume of the cell will also double.
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.1e State the size range of human cells and explain why cell size is limited.
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17) Which measurement would be most logical to describe the size of a cell?
- A) 1–2 mm
- B) 10 μm
- C) 2 cm
- D) 5–10 nm
- E) 1 dm
Answer: B
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.1e State the size range of human cells and explain why cell size is limited.
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18) Most human cells range from 10 to 15 micrometers in diameter. What limits how large a cell can get?
- A) A cell’s lifespan
- B) Nutrients available in the environment of a cell
- C) The relationship between its volume and length
- D) The relationship between its length and surface area
- E) The relationship between its volume and surface area
Answer: E
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.1e State the size range of human cells and explain why cell size is limited.
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19) Which of the following explains why block ice lasts longer in a picnic cooler than the same volume of ice cubes?
- A) Block ice has the same volume but less surface area than ice cubes so melts more slowly.
- B) Block ice has the same surface area but less volume than ice cubes so melts more slowly.
- C) Block ice has the same volume but less surface area than ice cubes so melts more quickly.
- D) Block ice has the same surface area but less volume than ice cubes so melts more quickly.
Answer: A
Section: 2.01
Bloom’s: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 2.1e State the size range of human cells and explain why cell size is limited.
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20) Which of the following is not true of phospholipids?
- A) They consist of a phosphate-containing head and two fatty acid tails.
- B) They comprise the majority of lipids in the plasma membrane.
- C) The fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
- D) The phosphate-containing heads are hydrophilic.
- E) The heads of the phospholipids face towards the extracellular fluid.
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2a Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.
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21) Which molecules form the basis for the lipid bilayer structure of the plasma membrane?
- A) Cholesterol
- B) Glycolipids
- C) Transmembrane proteins
- D) Phospholipids
- E) Glycoproteins
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2a Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.
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22) Most transmembrane proteins have ________ regions facing the intra- and extracellular fluid, and ________ regions embedded in the phospholipid bilayer.
- A) hydrophilic; hydrophilic
- B) hydrophilic; hydrophobic
- C) hydrophobic; hydrophobic
- D) hydrophobic; hydrophilic
- E) lipophilic; lipophobic
Answer: B
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2a Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.
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23) The term ________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it but not others.
- A) selectively permeable
- B) glycocalyx
- C) phospholipid bilayer
- D) specificity
- E) carrier-mediated
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2a Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.
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24) If you need to design a drug to cross the plasma membrane of the blood-brain barrier cells quickly, where would you start?
- A) With a lipid-soluble molecule
- B) With a water-soluble molecule
- C) With a large uncharged molecule
- D) With a small charged molecule
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2a Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.
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25) The genetically unique carbohydrate coat that enables the cell to identify “self ” from “non-self ” is the ________.
- A) cytoskeleton
- B) plasma membrane
- C) glycocalyx
- D) basement membrane
- E) serosa
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function; Organelles
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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26) Which statement concerning transmembrane proteins in the plasma membrane is false?
- A) They extend all the way through the plasma membrane.
- B) Some have carbohydrate chains and help form the glycocalyx.
- C) They are more abundant than the phospholipids.
- D) They may serve as channels that allow certain solutes to enter and leave the cell.
- E) They may be carriers that transport substances from one side of the plasma membrane to the other.
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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27) What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?
- A) To maintain rigidity of the plasma membrane
- B) To make the membrane more resistant to freezing
- C) To form receptor molecules
- D) To increase the fluidity of the membrane
- E) To restrict the entry of most molecules
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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28) After phospholipids, what are the next most abundant lipids in the plasma membrane?
- A) Triglycerides
- B) Glycolipids
- C) Saturated fats
- D) Cholesterol
- E) Steroids
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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29) The glycocalyx serves all of the following functions except:
- A) distinguishing the body’s own cells from foreign cells.
- B) protecting the membrane from physical and chemical injury.
- C) determining blood transfusion compatibility.
- D) helping to bind a sperm to an egg.
- E) absorbing energy into the cell.
Answer: E
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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30) A defect in which of the following would prevent a cell from attaching to neighboring cells?
- A) Cell-adhesion molecules
- B) Phospholipids
- C) Cholesterol
- D) Aquaporins
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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31) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease in which the body attacks itself resulting in blistering skin. Which of the following are likely the target of this autoimmune attack causing this symptom?
- A) Desmosomes between the epithelial cells
- B) Tight junctions between the intestinal cells
- C) Desmosomes in the cardiac muscle
- D) Gap junctions in the cardiac muscle
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2b Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.
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32) Which process would stop if a person ingested a poison that interfered with ATP production?
- A) Simple diffusion
- B) Osmosis
- C) Filtration
- D) Active transport
- E) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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33) White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of ________.
- A) phagocytosis
- B) pinocytosis
- C) active transport
- D) facilitated diffusion
- E) exocytosis
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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34) How would you characterize the sodium-potassium (Na+–K+) pump?
- A) Vesicular transport
- B) Phagocytosis
- C) Active transport
- D) Facilitated diffusion
- E) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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35) Specialized pancreatic cells produce insulin. How do you think the cells secrete this product so that it can be used throughout the body?
- A) Phagocytosis
- B) Pinocytosis
- C) Endocytosis
- D) Exocytosis
- E) Osmosis
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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36) Which process is not used to move substances out of a cell?
- A) Exocytosis
- B) Phagocytosis
- C) Active transport
- D) Simple diffusion
- E) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: B
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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37) The endocytotic process by which tiny packets of fluid are brought into the cell is called ________.
- A) facilitated diffusion
- B) osmosis
- C) pinocytosis
- D) phagocytosis
- E) exocytosis
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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38) The process by which particles move from high concentration to low concentration is called ________.
Answer: diffusion
simple diffusion
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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39) The process by which a pressure forces material through a membrane is called ________.
Answer: filtration
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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40) The diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ________.
Answer: osmosis
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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41) ________ diffusion is a process in which carrier proteins ferry substances down their concentration gradient without the use of cellular energy.
Answer: Facilitated
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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42) White blood cells engulf bacteria through the process of ________.
Answer: phagocytosis
endocytosis
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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43) Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If solution A has a higher concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B, then ________.
- A) the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
- B) the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
- C) water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
- D) water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
- E) neither the solute nor water will diffuse
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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44) If a genetic mutation affects the production of functional aquaporins, which of the following processes would be most adversely affected?
- A) Osmosis
- B) Facilitated diffusion
- C) Endocytosis
- D) Active transport
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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45) The sodium-potassium pump transports three sodium ions out for every two potassium ions it brings into a cell. Both ions are moved against their concentration gradients which means it must rely on which molecule in order to function?
- A) ATP
- B) NADH
- C) C6H12O6
- D) H2O
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2c Describe the processes for moving material into and out of a cell.
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46) Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a “brush border” composed of ________, which are cell extensions that increase surface area.
- A) cilia
- B) flagella
- C) rugae
- D) microvilli
- E) plicae
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Membrane structure and function
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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47) Which of the following structures contains an axoneme?
- A) Mitochondrion
- B) Microvillus
- C) Intermediate filament
- D) Cilium
- E) Desmosome
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Topic: Organelles
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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48) An individual with widespread blistering of the skin and oral mucosa due to a misguided attack of desmosomes by their own antibodies is likely suffering from which of the following disorders?
- A) Diabetes mellitus
- B) Multiple sclerosis
- C) Situs inversus
- D) Pemphigus vulgaris
- E) Neoplasm
Answer: D
Section: 2.02
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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49) Some of the peripheral microtubules of a cilium continue into the cell as a short ________.
- A) basal body
- B) terminal web
- C) microfilament
- D) axoneme
- E) centrosome
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Organelles
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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50) Which of the following is true of tight junctions?
- A) They are formed by connexons.
- B) They seal off intercellular space and prevent substances from passing between cells.
- C) They contain channels of diffusion of solutes from one cell to the next.
- D) They are patches that are formed when J-shaped proteins protrude toward the plasma membrane from the cytoskeleton.
- E) They are patch-like connections that are abundant in the epidermis and serve to keep cells from pulling apart.
Answer: B
Section: 2.02
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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51) Which type of intercellular connection facilitates the passage of electrical signals between cardiocytes and enables a coordinated heart beat?
- A) Tight junctions
- B) Desmosomes
- C) Gap junctions
- D) Tuxedo junctions
- E) J junctions
Answer: C
Section: 2.02
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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52) Extensions of the plasma membrane that increase surface area for the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine are called ________.
Answer: microvilli
brush border
Section: 2.02
Topic: Organelles
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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53) Ciliated cells lining the trachea are killed with continued exposure to cigarette smoke. Therefore, in a smoker, which of the following functions are impaired?
- A) The ability of these cells to move mucus over the tracheal surface.
- B) The ability of these cells to produce mucus.
- C) The ability of these cells to transport oxygen.
- D) The ability of these cells to remove carbon dioxide.
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Organelles
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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54) In Kartagener syndrome, the protein dynein is not produced. Which of the following would result?
- A) A male would be infertile due to non-motile sperm.
- B) Ribosomes would be unable to produce functional proteins.
- C) Mitochondria could no longer produce ATP.
- D) Cell plasma membranes would become rigid, tear, and leak calcium into the surrounding tissues.
Answer: A
Section: 2.02
Topic: Organelles
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.2d Describe the structure and function of microvilli, cilia, flagella, and cell junctions.
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55) What are cytoskeletal microfilaments composed of?
- A) Keratin
- B) Cholesterol
- C) Actin
- D) Glycoproteins
- E) Phospholipids
Answer: C
Section: 2.03
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.3a Describe the cytoskeleton and its functions.
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56) Which of the following is not a component of the cytoskeleton?
- A) Microfilaments
- B) Microtubules
- C) Actin
- D) Intermediate filaments
- E) Cilia
Answer: E
Section: 2.03
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 2.3a Describe the cytoskeleton and its functions.
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57) Which of the following would not be affected by the absence of microtubules?
- A) Cell division
- B) Cell movement
- C) The arrangement of organelles
- D) DNA replication
- E) Movement of molecules within the cell
Answer: D
Section: 2.03
Topic: Intracellular organization; Organelles
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 2.3a Describe the cytoskeleton and its functions.
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58) The cytoskeleton component composed mainly of the protein actin is a ________.
Answer: microfilament
Section: 2.03
Topic: Intracellular organization
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 2.3a Describe the cytoskeleton and its functions.
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Human Anatomy, 6e (Saladin)
Chapter 4 Human Development
1) When does an ovum finish meiosis?
- A) During fertilization
- B) During implantation
- C) While in a secondary follicle
- D) While in a primary follicle
- E) While in a tertiary follicle
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis; Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1a Describe the major features of sperm and egg production.; 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
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2) Why is it necessary for gametes to be produced through a special process of cell division?
- A) The cells that are produced must be genetically identical to the original cell.
- B) The cells that are produced must have twice as much genetic material as the original cell.
- C) The cells that are produced must have 23 chromosomes.
- D) The cells that are produced must have 46 chromosomes.
- E) The cells that are produced must have 92 chromosomes.
Answer: C
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1a Describe the major features of sperm and egg production.
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3) Gametes have half as many chromosomes as other cells in the body and are thus referred to as ________.
Answer: haploid
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1a Describe the major features of sperm and egg production.
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4) The production of sperm and egg cells is called ________.
Answer: gametogenesis
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1a Describe the major features of sperm and egg production.
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5) If a diploid somatic cell has 46 chromosomes, a haploid gamete would have ________ chromosomes.
- A) 23
- B) 46
- C) 12
- D) 92
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.1a Describe the major features of sperm and egg production.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
6) Sperm cannot fertilize an egg until what has occurred?
- A) Their plasma membrane is toughened by cholesterol.
- B) They undergo acromegaly.
- C) They lose their midpiece.
- D) They are in the vagina for 72 hours.
- E) They undergo capacitation.
Answer: E
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
7) What proportion of sperm in the vagina makes it to the immediate vicinity of the egg?
- A) 1 in 10
- B) 1 in 100
- C) 1 in 1000
- D) 1 in 1,000,000
- E) 1 in 10,000
Answer: D
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
8) During the process of ________, the sperm is modified so that it can fertilize an egg.
Answer: capacitation
Section: 4.01
Topic: Gametogenesis
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
9) Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
10) What process makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg?
- A) Sperm migration
- B) Capacitation
- C) The cortical reaction
- D) Morulation
- E) Cleavage
Answer: B
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
11) Out of the 200 million ejaculated sperm, only about ________ reach the vicinity of the egg.
- A) 20
- B) 200
- C) 2000
- D) 20,000
- E) 2
Answer: B
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
12) If a sperm does not undergo capacitation, what would it be incapable of doing?
- A) Fertilization
- B) Swimming
- C) Dividing
- D) Producing ATP
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.1b Explain how sperm migrate to the egg and acquire the capacity to fertilize it.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
13) When does fertilization usually occur?
- A) As soon as the egg erupts from the ovary
- B) Within two hours of ovulation
- C) Within the first 24 hours of ovulation
- D) Not before 48 hours after ovulation
- E) The event is too variable for us to predict a specific time frame.
Answer: C
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
14) More than one sperm is prevented from fertilizing an egg by all of the following mechanisms except:
- A) Opening sodium channels in the plasma membrane causes a change in the electrical charge of the membrane.
- B) Secretion of material from cortical granules pushes sperm away from the already fertilized egg.
- C) A slow block to polyspermy occurs.
- D) A fast block to polyspermy occurs.
- E) Meiosis II is completed by the egg.
Answer: E
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
15) A fertilized egg is called a/an ________.
Answer: zygote
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
16) In which structure does fertilization usually occur?
- A) Urethra
- B) Uterus
- C) Ovary
- D) Urinary bladder
- E) Uterine tube
Answer: E
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
17) A slow block is the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
18) In the slow block to polyspermy, sperm penetration releases an inflow of ________, which in turn stimulates the cortical reaction.
- A) Cl-
- B) K+
- C) Na+
- D) Ca2+
- E) Mg2+
Answer: E
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
19) In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up ________ channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and prevents the entrance of any more sperm.
- A) Na+
- B) K+
- C) Cl-
- D) Mg2+
- E) Ca2+
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
20) Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?
- A) Formation of a fertilization membrane
- B) The fast block to polyspermy
- C) The slow block to polyspermy
- D) The cortical reaction
- E) The acrosomal reaction
Answer:E
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
21) When is the optimal “window of opportunity” to conceive a child?
- A) A few days before ovulation to less than a day after
- B) Less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
- C) A few days before ovulation to a few days after
- D) A few days before ovulation
- E) A few days after ovulation
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
22) If an egg is unable to release cortical granules during fertilization, which of the following might occur?
- A) Multiple sperm may fertilize the egg.
- B) The oocyte doesn’t complete meiosis.
- C) Nondisjunction does not take place.
- D) Fertilization of the egg could not occur.
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
23) Which of the following lists the stages of prenatal development in the correct order?
- A) Cleavage, zygote, morula, trophoblast, embryo, fetus
- B) Zygote, morula, cleavage, embryo, trophoblast, fetus
- C) Zygote, cleavage, morula, trophoblast, embryo, fetus
- D) Zygote, embryo, morula, cleavage, trophoblast, fetus
- E) Embryo, zygote, cleavage, morula, trophoblast, fetus
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
24) Which process does not occur in the preembryonic stage of development?
- A) Organogenesis
- B) Gastrulation
- C) Cleavage
- D) Implantation
- E) Formation of a yolk sac
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
25) At what developmental stage does the conceptus reach the uterus?
- A) Zygote
- B) Blastocyst
- C) Trophoblast
- D) Morula
- E) Embryo
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
26) The endoderm does not give rise to which of the following structures?
- A) The lining of the digestive tract
- B) The thymus
- C) The lining of the respiratory tract
- D) The blood
- E) The thyroid gland
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
27) The three biological stages of development during pregnancy are preembryonic, ________, and fetal.
Answer: embryonic
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage; Embryonic stage; Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
28) The study of prenatal development is called ________.
Answer: embryology
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
29) What is the spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells called?
- A) Zygote
- B) Embryo
- C) Blastomere
- D) Morula
- E) Blastocyst
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
30) In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become ________, whereas the embryoblast will become ________.
- A) part of the placenta; the yolk sac
- B) part of the placenta; the embryo
- C) the embryo; part of the placenta
- D) the embryo; the yolk sac
- E) the yolk sac; the embryo
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
31) During which event are the primary germ layers formed?
- A) Implantation
- B) Cleavage
- C) Conception
- D) Organogenesis
- E) Gastrulation
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
32) Which of the following does mesenchyme give rise to?
- A) Nervous tissue
- B) Muscle, bone, and blood
- C) The digestive organs and endocrine glands
- D) The reproductive and urinary systems
- E) The integumentary system and exocrine glands
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
33) Which of the following sequence of events is in the correct chronological order?
- A) Conception, gestation, parturition
- B) Gestation, parturition, conception
- C) Parturition, conception, gestation
- D) Conception, parturition, gestation
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
34) A woman is carrying a 20 week old conceptus. Which trimester is she in?
- A) Second
- B) First
- C) Third
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
35) Which of the following is paired correctly?
- A) Endoderm: digestive mucosa
- B) Mesoderm: thymus
- C) Mesoderm: lens and cornea
- D) Ectoderm: bone marrow
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2a Name and define the three basic stages of prenatal development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
36) Which of the following anchors the conceptus to the uterine wall?
- A) Cytotrophoblast
- B) Syncytiotrophoblast
- C) Embryoblast
- D) Blastomere
- E) Yolk sac
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
37) At what developmental stage does the conceptus implant in the uterine wall?
- A) Zygote
- B) Blastocyst
- C) Trophoblast
- D) Morula
- E) Embryo
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
38) Which of the following statements are true regarding an ectopic pregnancy?
- A) It usually begins as a tubal pregnancy.
- B) It may involve implantation of the conceptus on the surface of the uterus.
- C) It may end in a live birth by caesarian section.
- D) It may involve implantation of the conceptus on the surface of the colon.
- E) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
39) About when does the conceptus begin to implant in the uterus?
- A) Day 1
- B) Day 7
- C) Day 14
- D) Day 21
- E) Day 28
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
40) If a blastocyst implants somewhere other than in the uterus, a/an ________ pregnancy results.
Answer: ectopic
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
41) Where does an embryo usually attach to its mother?
- A) To the endometrium
- B) To the perimetrium
- C) To the myometrium
- D) To the lining of the uterine tube
- E) To the lining of the vagina
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
42) During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
43) During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a deep layer called the ________, which is composed of individual cells.
- A) chorion
- B) amnion
- C) syncytiotrophoblast
- D) cytotrophoblast
- E) embryoblast
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
44) During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the ________, which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
- A) chorion
- B) embryoblast
- C) amnion
- D) syncytiotrophoblast
- E) cytotrophoblast
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
45) As it implants, what is the conceptus nourished by?
- A) Trophoblastic nutrition
- B) Uterine milk
- C) Nutrient diffusion from the endometrium
- D) Placenta
- E) Umbilical nutrition
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2b Describe the implantation of a conceptus in the uterine wall.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
46) What germ layer gives rise to mesenchyme?
- A) Hyperderm
- B) Endoderm
- C) Mesoderm
- D) Hypoderm
- E) Ectoderm
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
47) When is a conceptus considered to be an embryo?
- A) When the egg is fertilized by the sperm
- B) When the trophoblast and embryoblast have differentiated from each other
- C) As soon as the first traces of all the organ systems are present
- D) After the conceptus has implanted in the uterine wall
- E) When the three primary germ layers have formed
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
48) A unifying feature of vertebrates is that their embryos are segmented. What feature of human anatomy reflects this primitive segmentation?
- A) The presence of two forelimbs and two hindlimbs
- B) The division of the trunk region into a thorax and an abdomen
- C) The arrangement of the teeth in rows
- D) The linear arrangement of the ribs and vertebrae
- E) The symmetry of the body
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
49) What is the correct order in which structures are formed during neurulation?
- A) Neural plate, neural groove, neural fold, neural tube
- B) Neural fold, neural plate, neural groove, neural tube
- C) Neural plate, neural tube, neural fold, neural groove
- D) Neural groove, neural plate, neural fold, neural tube
- E) Neural fold, neural groove, neural plate, neural tube
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
50) During organogenesis, somites do not give rise to which of the following?
- A) Muscles of the trunk
- B) Vertebrae
- C) The spinal cord
- D) Dermis of the skin
- E) All of the choices are derivatives of somites.
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
51) Which of the following does not arise from the embryonic mesoderm?
- A) The nervous system
- B) The blood vessels
- C) The mesothelium
- D) The skeletal system
- E) The dermis
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
52) During embryogenesis, the epiblast cells give rise to which germ layer(s)?
- A) Ectoderm
- B) Mesoderm
- C) Trophoderm
- D) Endoderm
- E) Endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
53) What are the two layers of the embryonic disc?
- A) Mesoderm and endoderm
- B) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
- C) Epiblast and hypoblast
- D) Mesoderm and ectoderm
- E) Myotome and dermatome
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
54) During the third week of development, what is the result of gastrulation?
- A) It converts the epiblast into a hypoblast.
- B) It converts the hypoblast into endoderm.
- C) It forms the primitive streak.
- D) It forms the neural tube.
- E) It forms the amniotic cavity.
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
55) A/an ________ is a ball of 16 or more cells produced by the process of cleavage.
Answer: morula
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
56) The head end of an embryo is referred to as the ________ end.
Answer: cephalic
superior
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
57) The three primary germ layers are the endoderm, ________, and ectoderm.
Answer: mesoderm
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
58) The formation of organs and organ systems during the embryonic period is called ________.
Answer: organogenesis
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
59) The primary germ layer that gives rise to the epidermis, brain, and spinal cord is the ________.
Answer: ectoderm
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
60) Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
61) The embryonic stage extends from day 16 through the end of week 8.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
62) Which of the following lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?
- A) Cleavage, zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
- B) Zygote, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, embryo, fetus
- C) Zygote, cleavage, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
- D) Zygote, embryo, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, fetus
- E) Embryo, zygote, blastocyst, cleavage, morula, fetus
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
63) By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least ________ or more cells.
- A) 2
- B) 4
- C) 8
- D) 16
- E) 32
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
64) What is the first body cavity that develops called?
- A) Coelom
- B) Amniotic cavity
- C) Yolk sac
- D) Somite
- E) Chorion
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
65) Which of the following does not develop from the mesoderm?
- A) Brain
- B) Dermis
- C) Skeleton
- D) Blood
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
66) Within the embryonic disc, the epiblast gives rise to which of the following germ layers?
- A) Endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
- B) Endoderm and ectoderm only
- C) Endoderm and mesoderm only
- D) Mesoderm and ectoderm only
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
67) Which of the following preembryonic stages is paired incorrectly?
- A) Blastocyst: 14-16 days
- B) Zygote: 0-30 hours
- C) Cleavage: 3-72 hours
- D) Morula: 3-4 days
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2c Describe the major events that transform a fertilized egg into an embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
68) Which of the following is not one of the extraembryonic membranes surrounding a fetus?
- A) Yolk sac
- B) Placenta
- C) Allantois
- D) Chorion
- E) Amnion
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
69) Which of the following statements is true regarding the yolk sac in human embryos?
- A) It gives rise to the digestive tract.
- B) It is the source of the first blood cells.
- C) It allows for gas exchange.
- D) It allows for the passage of waste.
- E) It is the major source of nutrients for the embryo.
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
70) Which of the following is a function of the amnion?
- A) It enables the embryo to develop symmetrically.
- B) It protects the embryo from trauma.
- C) It allows movement and supports muscle development.
- D) It limits temperature fluctuation.
- E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
71) Which of the following membranous structures is closest to the fetus?
- A) The placenta
- B) The amnion
- C) The smooth chorion
- D) The villous chorion
- E) The placental sinus
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
72) Which embryonic membrane becomes part of the urinary bladder?
- A) Amnion
- B) Yolk sac
- C) Allantois
- D) Chorion
- E) Placenta
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
73) After embryonic folding, the ________ sac becomes reduced in size and eventually gives rise to the first blood cells and stem cells that give rise to gametes.
Answer: yolk
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
74) Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Effects of pregnancy on the mother
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
75) The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
76) The placenta begins to form after week 8.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
77) Which of the following completely encloses the embryo and provides it with a stable environment?
- A) Yolk sac
- B) Amnion
- C) Chorion
- D) Chorionic villus
- E) Allantois
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
78) What begins to develop about 11 days after conception and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth?
- A) The yolk sac
- B) The placenta
- C) The amnion
- D) The trophoblast
- E) The blastocyst
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
79) Which of the following is not considered an embryonic membrane?
- A) The yolk sac
- B) The placenta
- C) The allantois
- D) The chorion
- E) The amnion
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
80) ________ pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood. Fetal ________ pass(es) the other way.
- A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen; wastes
- B) Carbon dioxide; nutrients
- C) Wastes; nutrients and oxygen
- D) Wastes and nutrients; oxygen and carbon dioxide
- E) Oxygen and nutrients; wastes
Answer: E
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
81) Which of the following does not belong grouped with the others?
- A) Zona pellucida
- B) Amnion
- C) Yolk sac
- D) Allantois
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2d Define and describe the membranes associated with the embryo.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
82) Prior to implantation, what nourishes the conceptus?
- A) Uterine milk
- B) Vaginal transudation
- C) Trophoblastic nutrition
- D) Decidual cells
- E) The placenta
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2e Describe three ways in which the conceptus is nourished during its development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
83) The ________ is the organ that transports nutrients and oxygen from the maternal blood to the fetal blood.
Answer: placenta
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2e Describe three ways in which the conceptus is nourished during its development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
84) Which of the following describes a condition where the placenta is low on the uterine wall and partially or completely blocks the cervical canal?
- A) Abruptio placentae
- B) Placenta previa
- C) Preeclampsia
- D) Placentation
- E) Placenta gravida
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage; Effects of pregnancy on the mother
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2f Describe the formation and functions of the placenta.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
85) Which outer layer of the blastocyst forms part of the placenta?
- A) Trophoblast
- B) Embryoblast
- C) Yolk sac
- D) Amnion
- E) Blastocoel
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2f Describe the formation and functions of the placenta.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
86) Which of the following forms the fetal portion of the placenta?
- A) Embryoblast
- B) Chorion
- C) Amnion
- D) Yolk sac
- E) Allantois
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2f Describe the formation and functions of the placenta.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
87) Which of the following is not performed by the placenta?
- A) Transfer of CO2from mother to fetus
- B) Transfer of O2from mother to fetus
- C) Transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus
- D) Transfer of nutrients from mother to fetus
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2f Describe the formation and functions of the placenta.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
88) Which of the following is not a function of amniotic fluid?
- A) It helps nourish the embryo.
- B) It keeps surface tissues from binding to one another.
- C) It is involved in fetal “breathing.”
- D) It protects the fetus from temperature fluctuations.
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2f Describe the formation and functions of the placenta.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
89) During what time frame do limb buds appear in a conceptus?
- A) Day 16
- B) Between days 24 and 28
- C) Day 37
- D) Day 56
- E) The timing of appearance is variable.
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
90) What does the embryonic neural tube develop into?
- A) The digestive tract
- B) The liver and spleen
- C) The brain and spinal cord
- D) The vertebrae
- E) The brain, spinal cord, and vertebrae
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
91) What is the thick, tarry feces that accumulates in the fetal colon called?
- A) Colostrum
- B) Amniotic fluid
- C) Downy hair
- D) Meconium
- E) Teratogen
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
92) How long after fertilization is a conceptus considered a fetus?
- A) After 48 hours
- B) After 10 days
- C) After 8 weeks
- D) After 12 weeks
- E) After 5 months
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
93) The heart and skeleton are formed from which primary germ layer?
- A) Ectoderm
- B) Mesoderm
- C) Endoderm
- D) Hypoblast
- E) Trophoblast
Answer: B
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
94) During organogenesis, which somite-derived structure gives rise to the muscles of the trunk?
- A) The myotome
- B) The sclerotome
- C) The dermatome
- D) The pharyngeal pouches
- E) The coelom
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
95) During organogenesis, which structure is not derived from the pharyngeal pouches?
- A) Palatine tonsil
- B) Thymus
- C) Vertebra
- D) Thyroid gland
- E) Middle ear cavity
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
96) From about week 20 to 36, fine hair called ________ covers the fetus.
Answer: downy hair
lanugo
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
97) At the end of 8 weeks, why is the conceptus considered a fetus?
- A) All the primary germ layers are formed.
- B) The amniotic cavity has formed.
- C) All of the organ systems are present.
- D) The neural tube and yolk sac have formed.
- E) The mesoderm has formed.
Answer: C
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
98) Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?
- A) The eyes open fully.
- B) The body is covered with downy hair.
- C) Bone calcification begins.
- D) The central nervous system begins to form.
- E) Meconium accumulates in the intestines.
Answer: D
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
99) Which of the following does not develop from the pharyngeal arches?
- A) Hypothalamus
- B) Tympanic cavity
- C) Thymus
- D) Parathyroid glands
Answer: A
Section: 4.02
Topic: Fetal stage
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.2g Describe some major developments in the fetal stage.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
100) Which of the following is an evolutionary hypothesis to explain morning sickness?
- A) It is an adaptation to protect the embryo from toxins.
- B) It prevents too much weight gain during pregnancy.
- C) It is a vestigial artifact left over from early mammalian ancestors.
- D) It is a natural form of birth control.
- E) It alerts the woman that she is pregnant so that she is careful not to expose herself to harmful substances.
Answer: A
Section: 4.03
Topic: Effects of pregnancy on the mother
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3a Discuss the frequency and some causes of early spontaneous abortion.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
101) Most spontaneous abortions occur during the first three weeks after fertilization.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.03
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3a Discuss the frequency and some causes of early spontaneous abortion.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
102) What percentage of children in the U.S. exhibit congenital abnormalities by the age of 5?
- A) 1%
- B) 5%
- C) 8%
- D) 15%
- E) Over 20%
Answer: C
Section: 4.03
Topic: Genetic variability
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3b Discuss some types of birth defects and major categories of their causes.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
103) A/an ________is an environmental agent that causes changes in DNA structure.
Answer: mutagen
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3b Discuss some types of birth defects and major categories of their causes.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
104) A failure of the palate to fuse medially results in a condition called ________ palate.
Answer: cleft
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3b Discuss some types of birth defects and major categories of their causes.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
105) Which of the following is not a known cause of congenital anomalies?
- A) Infectious disease in the mother during pregnancy
- B) A genetic disorder
- C) Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy
- D) Smoking during lactation
- E) Smoking during pregnancy
Answer: D
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.3b Discuss some types of birth defects and major categories of their causes.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
106) Which syndrome does an XXY combination of sex chromosomes produce?
- A) Down syndrome
- B) Turner syndrome
- C) Klinefelter syndrome
- D) Andersen syndrome
- E) Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome
Answer: C
Section: 4.03
Topic: Genetic variability
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
107) Down syndrome (trisomy-21) results from ________.
- A) a mutagen
- B) nondisjunction
- C) a teratogen
- D) a sex-linked mutation
- E) an autosomal recessive allele
Answer: B
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
108) A sterile male with undeveloped testes, enlarged breasts, and unusually long arms and legs most likely has which syndrome?
- A) Patau syndrome
- B) Turner syndrome
- C) Klinefelter syndrome
- D) Fetal alcohol syndrome
- E) Down syndrome
Answer: C
Section: 4.03
Topic: Genetic variability
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
109) A karyotype of a baby born with abnormalities indicates that the child has 47 chromosomes. What conclusion could you draw?
- A) The developing embryo was exposed to a teratogen between weeks 3 and 4 after fertilization.
- B) The zygote was exposed to a mutagen.
- C) The baby has Turner syndrome.
- D) Nondisjunction during meiosis affected either the egg or sperm.
- E) The mother was probably over the age of 35 when she conceived.
Answer: D
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
110) Which of the following disorders does not result from disjunction?
- A) Klinefelter syndrome
- B) Patau syndrome
- C) Cri du chat
- D) Down syndrome
- E) Turner syndrome
Answer: C
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
111) Trisomy-21 results in ________ syndrome.
Answer: Down
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gametogenesis; Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
112) Down syndrome (trisomy-21) results from ________.
- A) a mutagen
- B) nondisjunction
- C) a teratogen
- D) a sex-linked mutation
- E) an autosomal recessive allele
Answer: B
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
113) The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving ________.
- A) no chromosomes
- B) 46 chromosomes
- C) 44 chromosomes
- D) 23 chromosomes
- E) 22 chromosomes
Answer: E
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
114) Only autosomal trisomies involving chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 are survivable. Why is this?
- A) These are relatively short chromosomes.
- B) These are relatively long chromosomes.
- C) These are relatively gene-poor chromosomes.
- D) These are redundant chromosomes.
- E) These chromosomes have no genes.
Answer: C
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 4.3c Describe some syndromes that result from chromosomal nondisjunction.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
115) A conceptus is most vulnerable to teratogen exposure during what time frame?
- A) 24 hours before ovulation
- B) 3 to 8 weeks after fertilization
- C) Within 48 hours of fertilization
- D) 16 to 20 weeks after fertilization
- E) 20 to 30 weeks after fertilization
Answer: B
Section: 4.03
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
116) Which of the following correctly describes thalidomide?
- A) It is a major cause of neural tube defects.
- B) It is a teratogen.
- C) It is able to cause birth defects only during the first week of pregnancy.
- D) It is associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
- E) It is a radioactive mutagen.
Answer: B
Section: 4.03
Topic: Embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
117) Which teratogen causes the most birth defects?
- A) Nicotine
- B) Thalidomide
- C) HIV virus
- D) Radiation
- E) Alcohol
Answer: E
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
118) A drug called ________, taken during pregnancy, may result in infants being born with unformed arms and legs.
Answer: thalidomide
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
119) Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
120) A teratogen is most likely to cause ________.
- A) a deformity of the limbs
- B) aneuploidy
- C) trisomy
- D) nondisjunction
- E) a mutation
Answer: A
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
121) Which of the following does not have potentially teratogenic effects?
- A) Smoking
- B) Alcohol
- C) Infectious diseases
- D) Sunlight
- E) X-rays
Answer: D
Section: 4.03
Topic: Gene inheritance and expression
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.3d Explain what teratogens are and describe some of their effects.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
122) Why are mitochondrial diseases almost always inherited from one’s mother, not father?
- A) The egg destroys sperm mitochondria.
- B) Sperm do not contain mitochondria.
- C) The sperm mitochondria are consumed by white blood cells in the woman’s body.
- D) The sperm mitochondria are consumed by white blood cells in the man’s body.
Answer: A
Section: 4.01
Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage
Bloom’s: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 4.1c Describe the fertilization process and how an egg prevents fertilization by more than one sperm.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation; Screen Reader Compatible
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