Medical Office Procedures 9Th Edition By Nenna Bayes – Test Bank

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Medical Office Procedures 9Th Edition By Nenna Bayes – Test Bank

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Medical Office Procedures, 9e (Bayes)

Chapter 2   Medical Ethics, Law, and Compliance

 

1) The standards of conduct that grow out of one’s understanding of right and wrong are known as:

1. A) Ethics
2. B) Morals
3. C) Behavior
4. D) Common Sense

 

2) What is considered to be one response to the bioethical issue of life sustainment without patient consent?

1. A) Appointing a power of attorney
2. B) Appointing a guardian
3. C) Creating a living will
4. D) Updating a will

 

3) What is another name for etiquette?

1. A) Good education
2. B) Good manners
3. C) Good attitude
4. D) Good morals

 

4) Who is called “the father of modern medicine”?

1. A) Galileo
2. B) Zeus
3. C) Hippocrates
4. D) Galen

 

5) The law, as it applies to standards of acceptable care, is known as:

1. A) Medical ethics
2. B) Medical jurisprudence
3. C) Medical etiquette
4. D) Medical morals

 

6) Medical practice acts ________ users of healthcare services.

1. A) Protect
2. B) Harm
3. C) Contact
4. D) Pay

7) The permit issued by the registration branch of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) must be renewed how often?

1. A) Bi-annually
2. B) Annually
3. C) Every three years
4. D) Every five years

 

8) The relationship between the physician and the patient starts when the patient:

1. A) Goes to the physician for care
2. B) Receives a bill
3. C) Receives a diagnosis
4. D) Selects the physician as a PCP

 

9) The contract between a physician and patient is ________, that is, it is not expressed in either words or writing.

1. A) Not valid
2. B) A deal
3. C) Implied
4. D) Applied

 

10) At times a written contract is provided. This is called a(n) ________ contract.

1. A) Implied
2. B) Expressed
3. C) Fixed
4. D) Common

 

11) A standard written contract may allow a patient to:

1. A) Have one free office visit
2. B) Pay for services at a 10% discount
3. C) Receive free care
4. D) Pay for services over an extended period of time

 

12) In the physician-patient relationship, the patient ________ certain responsibilities.

1. A) Does have
2. B) Does not have
3. C) Has to earn
4. D) May always waive

 

13) Which type of consent applies to routine treatment only?

1. A) Implied
2. B) Expressed
3. C) Defined
4. D) Belated

14) Which type of consent is important to avoid later lawsuits, or even more seriously, criminal accusations?

1. A) Implied
2. B) Expressed
3. C) Defined
4. D) Belated

 

 

 

15) Which type of consent means that the patient has had an illness or problem explained by the physician in simple, understandable language?

1. A) Expressed
2. B) Implied
3. C) Informed
4. D) Oral

 

16) This gives someone else, of the patient’s choosing, the right to make decisions for the patient:

1. A) Durable power of attorney
2. B) Certified power of attorney
3. C) Secure power of attorney
4. D) Trusting power of attorney

 

17) How many categories of covered entities are there?

1. A) Three
2. B) Two
3. C) One
4. D) Four

 

18) Individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or maintained by electronic media is called:

1. A) Patient Health Information
2. B) Private Health Information
3. C) Protected Health Information
4. D) Personal Health Information

 

19) PHI includes all of the following except:

1. A) Social Security Number
2. B) Telephone Number
3. C) Finger Prints
4. D) Weight

 

20) The HIPAA law requires identifiers for all of the following except:

1. A) Providers
2. B) Health Claims
3. C) Patients
4. D) Health plans

21) The NPI is a ________ position numeric identifier with a check digit in the last position to help detect keying errors.

1. A) 10
2. B) 8
3. C) 6
4. D) 12

 

 

 

22) The minimum necessary standard does not apply to disclosures for which purposes?

1. A) Among healthcare providers for treatment purposes
2. B) Among patients’ family and friends for informational purposes
3. C) Among healthcare providers and students for research purposes
4. D) Among patients in the waiting room for conversational purposes

 

23) For use or disclosure of PHI other than for treatment, payment, or operations, the patient must:

1. A) Pay a release of information fee
2. B) Sign an authorization to release information
3. C) Call and authorize the release of information
4. D) Visit the physician within 30 days of the release of information

 

24) TPO stands for:

1. A) Treatment, payment, organization
2. B) Taxation, physician, organization
3. C) The payment operation
4. D) Treatment, payment, operations

 

25) An authorization document must be in plain language and include all of the following except:

1. A) Signature of the individual
2. B) Description of the purpose of each disclosure
3. C) Expiration date
4. D) Cost requirement for release of information

 

26) Adherence to rules and regulations is also known as:

1. A) Legality
2. B) Compliance
3. C) Complements
4. D) Ability

 

27) This person may be an office manager or a biller:

1. A) Chief Medical Officer
2. B) Chief of Staff
3. C) Chief Compliance Officer
4. D) Chief Financial Officer

28) This type of environment makes employees feel encouraged to report mistakes promptly without fear of retribution:

1. A) Open door policy
2. B) Closed door policy
3. C) Online-only policy
4. D) Chain of command policy

 

 

 

29) An audit should be conducted at least how often by a designated staff member or outside consultant?

1. A) Once per year
2. B) Once every two years
3. C) Every six months
4. D) Once every five years

 

30) Within how many days should corrective action be taken once a problem is identified?

1. A) 30 days
2. B) 60 days
3. C) 90 days
4. D) 120 days

 

31) Accurate data entry speeds the correct payment of claims and lessens the chance of:

1. A) Local fines
2. B) State fines
3. C) State audit
4. D) Federal audit

 

32) Accurate documentation contributes to improved:

1. A) Patient satisfaction
2. B) Patient compliance
3. C) Patient care
4. D) Patient payment

 

33) Assistants who maintain good ________ relationships with patients and other staff members help reduce the likelihood of litigation.

1. A) Social
2. B) Extracurricular
3. C) Outside
4. D) Interpersonal

 

34) Documentation of all ________ should be placed in the compliance manual.

1. A) Hiring
2. B) Training
3. C) Firing
4. D) Auditing

35) Many practices accept requests for information only when they are:

1. A) Requested in writing
2. B) Requested in person
3. C) Requested by an attorney
4. D) Both written and notarized

 

 

 

36) How many parts are there to HIPAA’s Administrative Simplification provisions?

1. A) One
2. B) Two
3. C) Three
4. D) Four

 

37) Which is not a standard of the HIPAA Administrative Simplification Provisions?

1. A) HIPAA Security Requirements
2. B) HIPAA Electronic Transaction and Code Set Standard Requirements
3. C) HIPAA Privacy Requirements
4. D) HIPAA Release of Information Requirements

 

38) If a physician wishes to videotape a patient visit or procedure for training purposes, which kind of consent must the patient give?

1. A) Expressed consent
2. B) Implied consent
3. C) No consent
4. D) Written consent

 

39) The area of ________ deals with the ethics of medical treatment and technologies, processes, and scarcity of resources.

1. A) Ethics
2. B) Etiquette
3. C) Compliance
4. D) Bioethics

 

40) When Patricia was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease, she decided she might need another individual to make informed medical decisions, should she not be able to make them for herself. Which document would she need to complete?

1. A) Medical durable power of attorney
2. B) Expressed consent form
3. C) Certificate of deposit
4. D) Deposition

41) The following information was placed on the computer screen containing electronic health information data: Susan Durbin, Social Security number 123-45-6789, DOB 12/3/1975. Upon checkout, Susan’s neighbor saw the data on the screen and later called Susan to ask why she was seeing the doctor. Why is this a breach of confidentiality?

1. A) Protected health information was disclosed without permission
2. B) Health information was disclosed
3. C) The phone number was incorrect
4. D) The blood type was not listed

 

 

 

42) Lisa is asked to develop and implement policies and procedures to protect medical data. What would be her first step?

1. A) Assign a security officer
2. B) Assign passwords to individuals who need access
3. C) Identify areas of vulnerability
4. D) Conduct staff training

 

43) HIPAA stands for ________.

1. A) Health Insurance Portability and Account Action
2. B) Heathcare Interest Payment and Accountability Action
3. C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
4. D) Heathcare Income Payment and Account Action

 

44) A general written consent for the sharing of information for the purpose of carrying out treatment or submitting insurance claims is a(n) ________.

1. A) Authorization for the Release of Information
2. B) Statement of Defensive Medicine
3. C) Statement of Ethics
4. D) Etiquette Form

 

45) A patient’s refusal to have tests, x-rays, or vaccinations can be defined as ________.

1. A) Release of information
2. B) Contributory negligence
3. C) Fraud
4. D) Falsifying information

 

46) ________ is an intentionally dishonest practice that deprives others of their rights.

1. A) Etiquette
2. B) Abuse
3. C) Contributory negligence
4. D) Fraud

47) A law set to limit the time for initiating litigation is known as ________.

1. A) Arbitration
2. B) Settlement
3. C) Statute of limitations
4. D) Contributory negligence

 

48) A clear threat of injury to another is ________.

1. A) Assault
2. B) Contributory Negligence
3. C) Fraud
4. D) Ethics

 

 

 

49) ________ is any bodily contact without permission.

1. A) Assault
2. B) Battery
3. C) Fraud
4. D) Ethics

 

50) When a physician orders additional tests and follow-up visits to confirm a diagnosis or treatment, this kind of medicine is known as ________.

1. A) Defensive medicine
2. B) Contributory negligence
3. C) Malpractice
4. D) Advanced directives

 

51) Behaviors and customs that are standards for what is considered good manners is ________.

1. A) Etiquette
2. B) Ethics
3. C) Moral values
4. D) Bioethics

 

52) A(n) ________ gives someone else, of the patient’s choosing, the right to make decisions for the patient.

1. A) Durable power of attorney
2. B) Expressed consent
3. C) Informed consent
4. D) Summons

 

53) In order to prescribe controlled substances, the physician must be registered with the ________.

1. A) POA
2. B) DEA
3. C) DPA
4. D) GPA

54) ________ deals with the ethics of medical treatment, technology, and procedures.

1. A) Express consent
2. B) Etiquette
3. C) Ethics
4. D) Bioethics

 

55) A(n) ________ provides a license to practice medicine.

1. A) Licensure
2. B) Compliance
3. C) Good Samaritan acts
4. D) Liability

 

 

 

56) ________ are companies that “translate” or “facilitate” translation of electronic transactions between the providers of health care and the healthcare plans.

1. A) Good Samaritan Acts
2. B) Business associates
3. C) Healthcare clearinghouses
4. D) CMS

 

57) The AAMA has developed the ________ which outlines moral and ethical behaviors for the medical assistant in relation to the medical profession.

1. A) Code of Ethics and Creed
2. B) Malpractice Guidelines
3. C) Hippocratic Oath
4. D) Informed Consent

 

58) Which document states clearly the intent to refuse certain life-sustaining measures and specifies the length and methods of these measures?

1. A) Living will
2. B) Code of ethics and creed
3. C) Hippocratic oath
4. D) Informed consent

 

59) Each ________ governs the practice of medicine within its borders through laws known as medical practice acts.

1. A) Town
2. B) County
3. C) State
4. D) Community

60) When a minor has gained independence either by situation or by court order, this is referred to as:

1. A) Authorization
2. B) Emancipation
3. C) Subpoena
4. D) Litigation

 

61) Liability for negligence is recognized by law to include not only the physician’s action but also the actions of:

1. A) The patient
2. B) The clearninghouse
3. C) The physician’s employees
4. D) The referring physician

 

62) Risk areas that need to be in a compliance plan must address:

1. A) Coding and billing only
2. B) Documentation and improper inducements only
3. C) Reasonable services, coding and billing and improper inducements only
4. D) Coding, documentation, improper inducements, and reasonable services

 

63) Dr. Smith’s son is a partner in a medical testing facility, and Dr. Smith sends all his patients to this facility for testing. This is an example of:

1. A) Improper coding and billing
2. B) Improper inducements
3. C) Kickbacks
4. D) Self-referral

 

64) Dr. Goveia’s medical assistant, Melissa, has contacted the local medical supply company and informed them that she will purchase items from them if they give her a check for $10.00 every time she places an order. This is an example of:

1. A) Improper coding and billing
2. B) Improper inducements
3. C) Kickbacks
4. D) Self-referral

 

65) Dr. Mary Crib, who is a dermatologist, has contacted the local health clinic and informed the staff that if they refer to her any patients on Medicare or Medicaid, she will give the health clinic a 10% referral payment. This is an example of:

1. A) Improper coding and billing
2. B) Improper inducements
3. C) Kickbacks
4. D) Self-referral

66) ________ requires a party to appear in court and to bring specified documents or items.

1. A) Compliance
2. B) Good Samaritan Act
3. C) Subpoena
4. D) Subpoena duces tecum

 

67) Mental health information, genetics information, and ________ are not included in the designated record set.

1. A) Psychotherapy notes
2. B) Medical billing records
3. C) Medical coding records
4. D) PHI

 

68) Which standards require standardization in healthcare e-commerce?

1. A) Privacy Rule
2. B) Security Rule
3. C) Transactions and Code Set Standards
4. D) PHI

 

 

 

69) According to HIPAA, when utilizing a third-party billing service that is not a clearinghouse, what must you have on file?

1. A) Business Associate agreement
2. B) Authorization
3. C) Medical practice acts
4. D) Informed consent

 

70) Concepts of what is good and professional behavior, which is shown in ethics by the use of words such as compassion, honesty, honorable and responsibility is:

1. A) Etiquette
2. B) Ethics
3. C) Moral values
4. D) Compliance

 

71) Martha comes in the office and presents a state assistance card, followed by the next patient, Debra, who presents a Blue Cross Blue Shield card. The medical assistant greets Debra with a smile but never acknowledges Martha, and after handing back Martha’s card, the medical assistant makes sure to sanitize her hands. This is an example of:

1. A) Poor ethics
2. B) Poor etiquette
3. C) Compliance
4. D) Liability

72) ________ are legal documents stating the patient’s wishes for medical care, should he or she not be able to make these decisions.

1. A) Authorizations
2. B) Good Samaritan acts
3. C) Medical Practice acts
4. D) Advance directives

 

73) Most states have adopted a newer method to help patients who are not able to express desired life-sustaining interventions called ________, and it is signed by both the patient and the physician.

1. A) DEA
2. B) POLST
3. C) EMT
4. D) GSA

 

74) A local physician has decided that he no longer wants to treat patients with a diagnosis of HIV but does not send a letter stating that the practice will locate another physician. The patient is concerned because he has not been informed of this and has decided to sue the physician for:

1. A) Medical abandonment
2. B) Assault
3. C) Battery
4. D) Contributory negligence

 

 

 

75) A sworn statement to the court before any trial begins is called a

1. A) Summons.
2. B) Subpoena.
3. C) Subpoena duces tecum.
4. D) Deposition.

 

76) Which of these is a written notice that is sent to the person being sued?

1. A) Summons
2. B) Subpoena
3. C) Subpoena duces tecum
4. D) Deposition

 

77) A legal document in which the court orders that all documents relevant to the case be delivered to the court is called a

1. A) Summons.
2. B) Subpoena.
3. C) Habeas corpus.
4. D) Deposition.

78) ________ is when the plaintiff and the physician’s insurance company reach an agreement and the case does not go to court.

1. A) Arbitration
2. B) Settlement
3. C) Statute of limitations
4. D) Contributory negligence

 

79) What is it called when a person who is not a judge hears evidence and helps both sides resolve the dispute or makes a decision if the two sides cannot agree as an alternative to trial?

1. A) Arbitration
2. B) Settlement
3. C) Statute of Limitations
4. D) Contributory Negligence

 

80) Which of these was designed to protect individuals who render care to an injured person from liability for civil damages that may arise as a result of providing emergency care?

1. A) Arbitration
2. B) Settlement
3. C) Contributory negligence
4. D) Good Samaritan Act

 

81) Individuals called ________, who have evidence of fraud involving federal funding such as Medicare dollars, are given increased protection against retaliation.

1. A) Whistleblowers
2. B) Respondeatsuperiores
3. C) Good Samaritans
4. D) Arbitrators

 

82) If a claim is filed under the False Claims Act, it is referred to as ________.

1. A) Respondeat superior
2. B) Good Samaritan
3. C) Qui tam
4. D) Subpoena

 

83) In a qui tam action, who brings the suit on behalf of the federal government?

1. A) Qui tam
2. B) Whistleblower
3. C) Physician
4. D) Good Samaritan

84) According to Stark Law, a financial relationship is defined when the referring physician:

1. A) Files claims on behalf of the patient
2. B) Has an investment or ownership in entity or will receive payment for the referral
3. C) Can file a claim under “qui tam”
4. D) Qualifies as a “whistleblower”

 

85) To comply with the HIPAA Privacy Rule, medical offices must give each patient a copy of what document at their first encounter?

1. A) HIPAA documentation
2. B) Notice of Privacy Practices
3. C) A list of covered entities
4. D) A copy of the business associate agreement

Medical Office Procedures, 9e (Bayes)

Chapter 4   Office Communications: Phone, Scheduling, and Mail

 

1) The traditional channel of initial communication between the patient and the physician is:

1. A) Face-to-face
2. B) Telephone
3. C) E-mail
4. D) Regular mail

 

2) What should always be done prior to placing a caller on hold?

1. A) Ask permission
2. B) Take a message
3. C) Pull the chart
4. D) Obtain their telephone number

 

3) If you must keep a caller on hold for more than ________ seconds, go back on the line and ask the caller if they wish to continue holding.

1. A) 15
2. B) 30
3. C) 45
4. D) 60

 

4) There are many ways to answer the phone, but the preferred method is to answer with:

1. A) “Hello”
2. B) “Good morning”
3. C) “Dr. _____’s office, this is _____.”
4. D) “Please hold the line”

 

5) Which of the following calls should not be handled by taking a message?

1. A) Call from another physician
2. B) Prescription refills needed
3. C) Non-stat lab or x-ray results
4. D) A personal friend of the physician

 

6) After taking a message regarding a patient’s care, the assistant should:

1. A) Advise the physician
2. B) Advise the medical assistant
3. C) Enter into the computer
4. D) Pull the patient’s chart

7) All chart entries must be:

1. A) Dated
2. B) Signed and filed
3. C) Signed and dated
4. D) Printed and dated

 

 

 

8) Almost all patients make their first contact with the physician’s office by

1. A) Writing a letter.
2. B) Writing an e-mail.
3. C) Calling on the phone.
4. D) Stopping by in person.

 

9) About how far away from your mouth should you hold the mouthpiece of the phone in order to avoid distortion or faintness of voice?

1. A) 3 inches
2. B) ½ inch
3. C) 2 inches
4. D) 1 inch

 

10) Before appointments can be made, the administrative medical assistant must know the ________ of the physician’s office.

1. A) Address
2. B) Basic schedule
3. C) Average schedule
4. D) Basic information

 

11) A primary consideration in scheduling is allotting time for the physician’s:

1. A) Social engagements
2. B) Favorite hobbies
3. C) Research time
4. D) Hospital Rounds

 

12) The abbreviation CC stands for:

1. A) Current Complaint
2. B) Clinical Compliance
3. C) Chief Complaint
4. D) Clinical Course

 

13) In which type of scheduling are patients seen in the order in which they arrive?

1. A) Open/fixed office hours
2. B) Wave schedule
3. C) Double booking
4. D) Modified wave

14) Another name for wave scheduling is:

1. A) Group scheduling
2. B) Open/fixed office hours
3. C) Modified wave
4. D) Cluster scheduling

 

 

 

15) What factor influences whether an appointment should be a “stat” or “today” appointment.

1. A) The time of the appointment
2. B) The severity of the condition
3. C) The length of the appointment
4. D) The age of the patient

 

16) Which type of scheduling gives patients the flexibility of open office hours while allowing the assistant more control over the flow of patients?

1. A) Double booking
2. B) Modified wave
3. C) Wave scheduling
4. D) Open/fixed office hours

 

17) How often are established patients asked to verify their necessary data?

1. A) Every 3 months
2. B) Every 6 months
3. C) Once per year
4. D) Twice per year

 

18) Many offices post a sign asking that patients notify the front desk if they are still waiting ________ past their scheduled appointment time.

1. A) 45 minutes
2. B) 30 minutes
3. C) 20 minutes
4. D) 15 minutes

 

19) Leaving an interval of ________ free in the late morning and again at the end of the day will help the administrative medical assistant straighten out a delayed schedule.

1. A) 15-20 minutes
2. B) 25-30 minutes
3. C) 30-45 minutes
4. D) 60 minutes

 

20) Mail should be sorted according to its:

1. A) Size
2. B) Date
3. C) Addressee
4. D) Importance

21) If confidential mail is opened in error, the administrative medical assistant should reseal the correspondence and:

1. A) Mark with her initials
2. B) Mark with the date and the word “mistake”
3. C) Mark with the date and initials
4. D) Mark “opened by mistake” and her initials

 

 

 

22) Which type of correspondence relates to the management of the office and may concern insurance companies, lawyers, supply houses, and bills to patients?

1. A) Clinical
2. B) Business
3. C) Personal
4. D) Professional

 

23) Which type of correspondence concerns patients, clinical matters, and research?

1. A) Business
2. B) Personal
3. C) Clinical
4. D) Professional

 

24) Which type of correspondence pertains to the physician’s private life, such as notes to friends or letters about the physician’s personal business interests?

1. A) Business
2. B) Personal
3. C) Clinical
4. D) Professional

 

25) Which type of mail offers overnight delivery to most destinations?

1. A) Priority mail
2. B) Parcel post
3. C) Express mail
4. D) First class mail

 

26) Which type of mail includes all correspondence, whether hand written or typed, all bills, and all materials sealed against postal inspection and weighing 13 ounces or less?

1. A) Priority mail
2. B) Parcel post
3. C) Express mail
4. D) First class mail

27) Which type of mail is used for mailing items such as books, catalogs, other printed matter, or merchandise not weighing more than 70 pounds and no more than 130″ in length or girth?

1. A) Priority mail
2. B) Parcel post
3. C) Express mail
4. D) First class mail

 

28) Which type of mail provides the greatest security for valuables?

1. A) Registered mail
2. B) Insured mail
3. C) Certified mail
4. D) First class mail

 

 

 

29) Which type of mail offers two-to three-day service to most domestic destinations and must weigh less than 70 pounds?

1. A) First class mail
2. B) Express mail
3. C) Parcel post
4. D) Priority mail

 

30) When processing incoming mail, the office assistant should do all the following except

1. A) Date stamp the correspondence.
2. B) Attach needed patient data to correspondence.
3. C) Place received checks in different locations.
4. D) Refrain from opening the physician’s mail marked “Confidential.”

 

31) During the monthly office meeting, the method of scheduling appointments was discussed. The patients frequently had wait times in excess of two hours and were very upset by the time the physician saw them. The practice is a large community clinic that uses wave scheduling. Which of the following scheduling methods may be a better alternative for the clinic?

1. A) Scheduled appointments in the morning for call-in patients and open hours in the afternoon.
2. B) Wave scheduling with double and triple booking of patients at the top of each hour.
3. C) There is not better scheduling method.
4. D) See fewer patients each day.

 

32) Which of the following is used to answer calls when the medical office is closed?

1. A) Answering service
2. B) Fax machine
3. C) Telephone directory
4. D) Email

33) After taking a message regarding a patient’s care, the administrative medical assistant should obtain the ________.

1. A) patient chart
2. B) doctor’s input
3. C) vital statistics
4. D) referring physician telephone number

 

34) A ________ may be used to send or receive information about the patient immediately.

1. A) Fax machine
2. B) Copy machine
3. C) Postage machine
4. D) Weighing machine

 

35) All chart notations must be signed and ________.

1. A) proof-read
2. B) triaged
3. C) dated
4. D) posted

 

36) The ________ for cancellations and rescheduled appointments should be posted in areas accessible to patients such as the waiting area or examination room.

1. A) NPP
2. B) OCR
3. C) office policy
4. D) management book

 

37) An assistant must screen calls according to the office policy, take complete and accurate messages, and ________.

1. A) Distract the caller
2. B) Follow proper telephone etiquette
3. C) Answer all questions that the patient may have
4. D) Only put through calls that they feel are important

 

38) Another word for telephone etiquette is telephone ________.

1. A) conduct
2. B) screening
3. C) demeanor
4. D) accomplishment

39) You work in an oncologist office, and a patient calls to get the results of their breast biopsy. You cannot determine the identity of the patient over the phone so you should ________.

1. A) tell them to call back and talk to someone else
2. B) go ahead and release the requested information
3. C) have them call the lab directly for the results
4. D) not disclose any information until you have received proper release

 

40) The ideal time to answer a call is on the ________ ring.

1. A) Fourth
2. B) Third
3. C) Second
4. D) First

 

41) What is it called when patients with the same condition(s) meet in a group setting?

1. A) shared medical scheduling
2. B) wave scheduling
3. C) open scheduling
4. D) fixed scheduling

 

42) A local immunologist has a large Spanish-speaking patient population, and she offers appointments the first Tuesday of each month so everyone can get their blood glucose test, vitals taken, and wounds on feet checked. A dietician also attends these sessions and during the encounter Spanish is spoken. What type of scheduling does the immunologist use in this case?

1. A) fixed
2. B) open
3. C) wave
4. D) shared medical

 

43) What type of scheduling has offices enter the extra appointment in the second column beside the regular scheduled appointment?

1. A) wave
2. B) open
3. C) shared medical
4. D) double-booking

 

44) How would you classify a patient who, without notifying the office, fails to come to their appointment?

1. A) No show
2. B) Failed show
3. C) No appearance
4. D) Failed appearance

45) The process of using good judgment to determine how soon a patient needs to be seen is called ________.

1. A) triage
2. B) determination
3. C) priority calling
4. D) patient assessment

 

46) When opening payments from patients, the administrative medical assistant should do everything except

1. A) Carefully put aside the check.
2. B) Verify whose bill is being paid.
3. C) Mark it personal and confidential.
4. D) Keep all patient checks together to be recorded and deposited later.

 

47) Which type of mail is used for mailing items such as books, catalogs, sound recordings, and video recordings?

1. A) Bound Printed Matter
2. B) Express Mail
3. C) Priority Mail
4. D) Media Mail

 

48) The doctor wants to send a dismissal from care letter to the patient for refusing to follow medical advice. The office will need to make sure that the patient has received this letter for documentation purposes. Which method of mailing should they use?

1. A) Parcel Post
2. B) Priority Mail
3. C) Certified Mail
4. D) First-class Mail

 

 

 

49) Which way should patient statements be mailed?

1. A) First-class mail
2. B) Priority mail
3. C) Parcel Post
4. D) Certified Mail

 

50) ________ requirements are that at least 90 percent of the mailed materials must be imprinted materials generated by a means other than handwriting or typewriting.

1. A) Media mail
2. B) Parcel post
3. C) First-class mail
4. D) Bound printed matter

51) When sending something that requires special handing, you should mark the package as ________.

1. A) Delicate
2. B) Fragile
3. C) Beware
4. D) Breakable

 

52) You want to send a letter to a patient with confidential HIV test results, and you want to make sure that only the patient (or the patient’s agent) receives the letter. How should you send this delivery?

1. A) Special
2. B) Limited
3. C) Restricted
4. D) Controlled

 

53) First-class mail is primarily processed by OCR, which stands for ________.

1. A) Optical certified reader
2. B) Outgoing certified reader
3. C) Outgoing character reader
4. D) Optical character reader

 

54) The use of ZIP + 4 ________ mandatory

1. A) is
2. B) is not
3. C) used to be
4. D) may become

 

55) The office is going through the medicine cabinet and notes that there are a few medicines that have expired. What should the office do with these medications?

1. A) Throw them in the trash
2. B) Flush them down the toilet
3. C) Hurry up and give them out
4. D) Take them to a centralized location for proper disposal

 

56) When communicating on the phone with a patient, proper telephone etiquette includes which of the following:

1. A) Use of a pleasant tone of voice.
2. B) Varying your pitch and phrasing.
3. C) Speaking clearly and distinctly.
4. D) All of these.

57) According to good telephone etiquette, what should you do when answering the phone?

1. A) Visualize the person
2. B) Answer on the fourth ring
3. C) Just get through each call quickly
4. D) Make sure you say “bye-bye” when ending the call

 

58) You should speak at a ________ pace throughout the conversation.

1. A) Slow
2. B) Fast
3. C) Moderate
4. D) Leisurely

 

59) Your office should utilize a ________ to help you screen and transfer calls.

1. A) Memo pad
2. B) Prewritten script of what to say
3. C) Call screening sheet
4. D) Dispatch system

 

60) When screening calls, the first priority is to:

1. A) Make sure the patient understands you and ask them to hold
2. B) Determine the name of the caller and the nature of the call
3. C) Find out if the patient needs an appointment
4. D) Tell the patient that you are busy and will get back to them within 3-5 minutes

 

61) Which one of the following calls would you put through to the physician?

1. A) A patient’s relative requests information about the patient
2. B) A prescription refill
3. C) A lab calling with test results
4. D) A call from a patient with an acute illness, such as a severe reaction to medication

 

62) A patient, Mary Jones, was seen last week and the doctor asked her to inform the office after a week on a new medication. What should the administrative medical assistant do when Mary reports that information?

1. A) Put the call immediately through to the physician
2. B) Let Mary tell you about it and do nothing
3. C) Take a message and give it to the doctor
4. D) Have the doctor paged

 

 

63) CMS defines an emergency medical condition as:

1. A) a medical condition that manifests itself by chronic symptoms of low severity
2. B) a medical condition for which treatments are not medically necessary and are chronic
3. C) a medical condition that manifests itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity
4. D) a medical condition for which treatments are medically necessary and immediately required

 

64) CMS defines an urgent medical condition as:

1. A) a medical condition that manifests itself by chronic symptoms of little severity
2. B) a medical condition that manifests itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity
3. C) medical conditions for which treatment is not medically necessary but are chronic
4. D) medical conditions for which treatment is medically necessary and immediately required as a result of an unforeseen illness, injury, or condition

 

65) When screening a nonmedical situation, the caller refuses to give you information over the phone. What should you do in this situation?

1. A) Suggest that a letter be written and marked “Personal”
2. B) Refuse to help the caller until the information is obtained
3. C) Just hang up the call because it was probably a sales call
4. D) Put them on hold and wait for them to hang up

 

66) When taking a message you should use ________ to save time when recording a message.

1. A) slang expressions
2. B) colloquial expressions
3. C) complete medical terminology
4. D) abbreviations

 

67) A drawback to which type of scheduling system is that you do not know the reason for the patient’s visit until they arrive in your office?

1. A) Wave scheduling
2. B) Open/fixed office hours
3. C) Shared medical appointments
4. D) Online scheduling

 

68) When Mike Capney needs to see his physician, he can just go to the office whenever he wishes. The practice is utilizing what type of patient scheduling?

1. A) Wave scheduling
2. B) Shared medical appointments
3. C) Scheduled appointments
4. D) Open/fixed office hours

69) What type of scheduling system do many physician offices and clinics use where patients are given a set appointment time?

1. A) Wave scheduling
2. B) Shared medical appointments
3. C) Scheduled appointments
4. D) Open/fixed office hours

 

70) Through what type of scheduling system can patients gain encouragement because they realize they are not alone in their struggles?

1. A) Wave scheduling
2. B) Shared medical appointments
3. C) Scheduled appointments
4. D) Open/fixed office hours

 

71) ZocDoc is an example of what type of scheduling?

1. A) Wave scheduling
2. B) Shared medical appointments
3. C) Patient online scheduling
4. D) Open/fixed office hours

 

72) What type of scheduling enables available appointment slots in a physician’s schedule to be very easily located?

1. A) Computer scheduling
2. B) Wave scheduling
3. C) Open/fixed office hours
4. D) Double-booking

 

73) Bonnie calls in complaining of cramps and bleeding, and she is 26 weeks pregnant. When would you give an appointment to this patient?

1. A) Stat and/or today
2. B) Tomorrow
3. C) Later
4. D) No appointment is required

 

74) David Kelly calls to book his annual physical. How would you classify this appointment?

1. A) Stat and/or today
2. B) Tomorrow
3. C) Later
4. D) No appointment is required

75) A patient, Kathy Cole, calls to say that she has had vaginal discharge over the past week along with blood in stool. How should this appointment be scheduled?

1. A) Stat and/or today
2. B) Tomorrow
3. C) Later
4. D) No appointment is required.

 

76) Which of the following is an alphabetic list of telephone customers?

1. A) Answering service
2. B) Fax machine
3. C) Telephone directory
4. D) Email